ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes. What is the expected outcome of this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The expected outcome of acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes is decreased viral shedding. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby reducing viral shedding and helping to control outbreaks. Choice A, decreased testosterone production, and Choice B, decreased libido, are unrelated outcomes of acyclovir treatment for genital herpes. Choice D, decreased bacterial replication, is also incorrect as acyclovir specifically targets viruses and does not affect bacterial replication.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.
Question 4 of 5
In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone, but rather helps to maintain existing bone mass. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
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