WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

Questions 39

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WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

Prior to leaving on a backpacking trip to Southeast Asia, a college student has received a tetanus booster shot. This immunization confers protection by way of what immune process?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active artificial immunity. A tetanus booster shot confers protection through active artificial immunity. Active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies in response to an antigen, providing long-lasting protection. In this case, the tetanus booster shot triggers the student's immune system to produce specific antibodies against tetanus toxins. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because passive immunity does not involve the individual's immune system producing antibodies; instead, it involves the direct transfer of antibodies from another source (natural or artificial) for immediate, but temporary, protection.

Question 2 of 5

The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Poor feeding and constipation are common early symptoms of infant botulism, which is caused by a neurotoxin that impairs muscle function. Option A is unrelated to the presentation of botulism. Option C does not directly relate to the symptoms of botulism. Option D is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than the constellation of symptoms seen in botulism.

Question 3 of 5

What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.

Question 4 of 5

A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Question 5 of 5

A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

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