Microbiology A Systems Approach Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a bluish-green pigment called pyocyanin, which presents as a cyan pigment. This bacterium is commonly associated with wound infections and is often found in oral surgery complications. Proteus vulgaris (B) and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) are not typically associated with cyan pigment production, making them less likely causative agents. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not known to produce cyan pigment and is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Therefore, based on the presence of cyan pigment and the clinical context of an oral surgery complication, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most probable causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dysenteric amoeba. This is because dysenteric amoebas can cause asymptomatic parasitosis, where a healthy person carries cysts that can infect others. Dysenteric amoebas are known to infect the intestines and can be transmitted through contaminated food or water. Choice B, Malarial plasmodium, causes malaria transmitted through mosquitoes. Choice C, Enteral trichomonad, causes diarrhea and is transmitted through contaminated water. Choice D, Dermatotropic leishmania, causes skin lesions and is transmitted through sandfly bites. These choices do not fit the scenario of asymptomatic parasitosis in public catering establishments.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Binary fission is the correct answer for bacterial replication because it is the process by which bacteria divide into two identical daughter cells. During binary fission, the bacterial cell replicates its DNA, forms a septum dividing the cell into two, and eventually splits into two daughter cells. This process is specific to prokaryotic cells such as bacteria and is different from mitosis and meiosis, which are processes specific to eukaryotic cells. Cytokinesis is the final step of cell division in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, but it is not the primary mechanism of bacterial replication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Human papillomavirus. Genital warts are caused by certain strains of HPV, specifically types 6 and 11. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that affects the skin and mucous membranes. HPV is directly linked to the development of genital warts through skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Herpes simplex virus 2 causes genital herpes, not genital warts. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) weakens the immune system but does not directly cause genital warts. Human cytomegalovirus (CMV) is not a common cause of genital warts. Therefore, HPV is the correct and most logical choice for the cause of genital warts.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.