ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a stroke. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Perform range-of-motion exercises daily. After a stroke, performing range-of-motion exercises can help prevent complications such as joint stiffness and contractures. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Anticoagulant medications are often prescribed to prevent blood clots after a stroke, fluid intake should be adequate unless indicated otherwise, and isometric exercises can be beneficial during recovery.
Question 2 of 5
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.
Question 3 of 5
How should a healthcare professional assess a patient's pain level post-surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Using a pain rating scale is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's pain level post-surgery. Pain rating scales provide a standardized way for patients to communicate their pain intensity, allowing for accurate assessment and effective pain management. Checking vital signs (choice B) is important for monitoring a patient's overall health status but may not directly reflect their pain level. Observing for non-verbal cues (choice C) is valuable, but it may not always provide a clear indication of the pain intensity. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice D) is relevant for assessing respiratory status but does not directly evaluate the patient's pain level.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.
Question 5 of 5
How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.
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