ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Regulate blood glucose levels.' Administering insulin to a patient with diabetes helps regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, thereby lowering high blood sugar levels. This process aims to prevent hyperglycemia and its associated complications. Choice B, 'Increase metabolism,' is incorrect as the primary role of insulin is not to increase metabolism directly. Choice C, 'Prevent complications,' is partially correct as regulating blood glucose through insulin administration does help prevent complications associated with uncontrolled diabetes, but it is not the primary purpose. Choice D, 'Promote insulin sensitivity,' is incorrect as insulin itself is administered to compensate for the lack of endogenous insulin in diabetic patients, rather than to promote sensitivity to it.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm� indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Stage 3 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue, which requires a moist environment for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help maintain a moist wound environment, promote healing, and provide protection. Providing wound debridement may be necessary but is not the priority intervention at this stage. Changing the dressing daily is important for wound care but not the priority over creating an optimal healing environment. Elevating the affected area can help with circulation and reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention for a stage 3 pressure ulcer.