ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 33 weeks of gestation, the nurse should monitor the client for contractions. Contractions can indicate preterm labor, which requires immediate attention. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not typically associated with amniocentesis complications at this gestational age.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The guardian asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A lack of tear production is a sign of severe dehydration in infants, indicating the need for IV therapy. Option B, bulging fontanels, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not dehydration. Option C, breathing slower than normal, and Option D, decreasing heart rate, are not specific signs of severe dehydration that would indicate the need for IV therapy in this case.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the abdomen. Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously into the abdomen for optimal absorption. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between enoxaparin and spinach. Choice B is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended and can increase bruising. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin injections should not be administered into the deltoid muscle.
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