ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds indicate that the rate of infusion should be increased. This pattern suggests weak contractions or intervals that are too far apart, requiring an adjustment to improve labor progress. Option A is incorrect as a low urine output is not directly related to the need for an increase in the oxytocin infusion rate. Option B, Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg, is incorrect because it is a measure of intrauterine pressure and does not determine the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion. Option C, FHR pattern with absent variability, is incorrect as it may indicate fetal distress but does not specifically relate to the need for adjusting the oxytocin infusion rate.
Question 2 of 5
A client is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using an abduction pillow between the client's legs is essential in maintaining proper alignment and preventing dislocation of the hip joint following a hip arthroplasty. Encouraging the client to lie flat in bed (Choice A) is not recommended as early mobilization is crucial for preventing complications. Applying heat to the incision site (Choice B) is not typically done immediately postoperatively. Placing a trochanter roll under the client's knees (Choice D) is not as beneficial as using an abduction pillow to maintain proper positioning.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a heart rate of 160/min. A heart rate of 160/min in a newborn exceeds the normal range and could indicate potential issues that need further evaluation by the provider. Acrocyanosis (choice A) is a common finding in newborns and is not concerning. Vernix caseosa (choice B) is a white, cheesy substance found on newborn skin and is a normal finding. While a respiratory rate of 50/min (choice C) is slightly elevated, it is not as concerning as a high heart rate in a newborn.
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