ATI Exit Exam 2024

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to develop a safety plan with the client. In cases of intimate partner violence, the priority is to ensure the client's immediate safety. While referring the client to a community support group (choice B) and determining if the client has any injuries (choice C) are important interventions, ensuring the client's safety through a safety plan takes precedence. Contacting the client's family about the incident (choice D) may not be appropriate as it can further endanger the client.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with alcohol use disorder experiencing withdrawal is to administer diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage withdrawal symptoms in these clients by reducing anxiety, tremors, and the risk of seizures. Administering naloxone (Choice A) is used for opioid overdose, not alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging oral fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial but not a specific intervention for alcohol withdrawal. Administering magnesium sulfate (Choice D) is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal but may be used for other conditions like preeclampsia or eclampsia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A lack of tear production is a sign of severe dehydration in infants, indicating the need for IV therapy. Option B, bulging fontanels, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not dehydration. Option C, breathing slower than normal, and Option D, decreasing heart rate, are not specific signs of severe dehydration that would indicate the need for IV therapy in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.