ATI Fundamentals

Questions 30

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Fundamentals Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

Question 2 of 5

A healthcare provider is preparing to care for a client following chest tube placement. Which of the following items should NOT be available in the client's room?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Following chest tube placement, an indwelling urinary catheter is not typically needed or relevant to the care provided. Chest tube placement is primarily concerned with managing pleural effusion or pneumothorax, and urinary catheterization is not directly related to this procedure. Oxygen, sterile water, and enclosed hemostat clamps are commonly used items in the care of a client with a chest tube in place, to ensure proper oxygenation, maintain drainage system integrity, and manage any bleeding that may occur. Therefore, the indwelling urinary catheter should not be available in the client's room following chest tube placement.

Question 3 of 5

When assessing a client with sinusitis, which technique should the nurse use to identify manifestations of this disorder?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sinusitis is an inflammation of the sinus cavities, which can cause tenderness and pain around the eyes (orbital areas). Palpation of the orbital areas can help identify tenderness and swelling associated with sinusitis. Auscultation of the trachea and percussion of the frontal sinuses are not relevant assessment techniques for sinusitis. Inspection of the nasal mucosa may reveal signs of inflammation, but palpation of the orbital areas is a more direct method to assess for tenderness and swelling in this specific condition.

Question 4 of 5

A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

Question 5 of 5

A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

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