ATI Fundamentals

Questions 30

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Fundamentals Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.

Question 2 of 5

During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.

Question 3 of 5

A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.

Question 4 of 5

A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

Question 5 of 5

When assessing a client with sinusitis, which technique should the nurse use to identify manifestations of this disorder?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sinusitis is an inflammation of the sinus cavities, which can cause tenderness and pain around the eyes (orbital areas). Palpation of the orbital areas can help identify tenderness and swelling associated with sinusitis. Auscultation of the trachea and percussion of the frontal sinuses are not relevant assessment techniques for sinusitis. Inspection of the nasal mucosa may reveal signs of inflammation, but palpation of the orbital areas is a more direct method to assess for tenderness and swelling in this specific condition.

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