ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Flushing and tachycardia are signs of Red Man Syndrome, which can be mitigated by decreasing the infusion rate.
Question 2 of 5
When starting a new prescription for prednisone, which instruction should the nurse include for the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting a new prescription for prednisone is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, emphasizing the importance of gradual tapering under healthcare provider guidance. Increasing potassium-rich foods may be necessary based on individual needs, but it is not the priority instruction in this context. Grapefruit juice interaction is more commonly associated with certain medications but not specifically with prednisone. Taking prednisone at bedtime to prevent drowsiness is not a key instruction related to its administration.
Question 3 of 5
What is the therapeutic use of Phenytoin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used to diminish seizure activity and is effective in terminating ventricular arrhythmias. It works by stabilizing neuronal membranes, reducing repetitive neuronal firing, and limiting the spread of seizure activity in the brain. While phenytoin does not have a direct role in preventing thrombus formation or extending existing thrombi, it is crucial in managing seizures and certain arrhythmias.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients receiving antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following clients should the professional plan to monitor for manifestations of antibiotic toxicity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An older adult client with prostatitis who is receiving antibiotics should be monitored for toxicity due to age-related reductions in medication metabolism and excretion. Older adults are more susceptible to antibiotic toxicity, making them a high-risk group for adverse effects.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.
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