ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse approaches a hospitalized poststroke patient from the patient�s left side to do an assessment. The patient is staring straight ahead, and does not respond to the nurse�s presence or voice. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. By approaching the patient from the other side, the nurse can assess if the patient has a visual field deficit. 2. This step helps determine if the lack of response is due to a sensory issue. 3. It allows the nurse to rule out unilateral neglect or hemianopsia. 4. Walking to the other side is a basic assessment technique to evaluate visual and sensory deficits in poststroke patients. Other Choices: B. Speaking more loudly and clearly may not address the potential sensory issues the patient is experiencing. C. Waving fingers in front of the patient's face does not provide a comprehensive assessment of visual field deficits. D. Using a picture may be helpful, but addressing the potential visual field deficit should be prioritized first.
Question 2 of 5
A 40 year old woman with aplastic anemia is prescribed estrogen with progesterone. The nurse can expect that these medications are given for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To stimulate bone growth. Estrogen and progesterone are hormones that play a crucial role in maintaining bone density and promoting bone growth. In postmenopausal women or individuals with conditions like aplastic anemia, bone health can be compromised. Estrogen helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength, while progesterone also contributes to bone formation. Therefore, in this scenario, these medications are likely prescribed to help improve bone health in the woman with aplastic anemia. Incorrect choices: B: Estrogen and progesterone do not directly enhance sodium and potassium levels. C: Estrogen and progesterone do not regulate fluid balance absorption directly. D: Estrogen and progesterone do not specifically promote utilization and storage of fluids.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is instructed to perform preoperative preparation for the management of a client with malignant tumors. Which of the ff is the most important factor of the nursing management plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintaining the integrity of the urinary system. This is crucial in preoperative preparation for a client with malignant tumors to prevent complications such as urinary obstruction or infection. Assessing symptoms of peritonitis (B) is important but not as critical as ensuring urinary system integrity. Insertion of an ostomy pouch (A) and nasogastric tube diversion procedure (D) may be necessary interventions for some cases, but they are not as essential as ensuring the urinary system's integrity to prevent serious complications.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is aware that the shift of body fluids associated with the intravenous administration of albumin occurs by the process of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Filtration. Albumin is a large protein molecule that cannot pass through the semipermeable membrane of blood vessels. Therefore, the shift of body fluids associated with intravenous albumin administration occurs through the process of filtration, where fluid moves across the membrane due to a pressure difference. Osmosis (B) involves the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane, which is not the case for albumin. Diffusion (C) is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration, which is not how albumin moves. Active transport (D) requires energy to move substances against a concentration gradient, which is not the mechanism for albumin movement in the body.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following guidelines should a nursing instructor provide to nursing students who are now responsible for assessing their clients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessment data should be collected continuously to ensure timely detection of any changes in the client's condition. This allows for prompt interventions and prevents complications. Choice B is incorrect as assessment should be ongoing and not limited to specific times. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of assessment should be based on client needs, not a fixed schedule. Choice D is incorrect as assessments should not be limited to certain times but should be ongoing to provide comprehensive care.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access