foundation of nursing questions and answers

Questions 101

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A man comes to the clinic complaining that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection. When reviewing the patients history, what might the nurse note that contributes to erectile dysfunction?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient has a history of hypertension. Hypertension is a risk factor for erectile dysfunction as it can lead to reduced blood flow to the penis, impacting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. High blood pressure can damage blood vessels and affect the circulation necessary for an erection. Other choices are less likely to directly contribute to erectile dysfunction. A: UTI treatment is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction. C: Age alone is not a direct cause of erectile dysfunction, although it can increase the risk. D: While a sedentary lifestyle can impact overall health, it is less likely to directly cause erectile dysfunction compared to hypertension.

Question 2 of 5

During the admission assessment of an HIV-positive patient whose CD4+ count has recently fallen, the nurse carefully assesses for signs and symptoms related to opportunistic infections. What is the most common life-threatening infection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pneumocystis pneumonia. This is the most common life-threatening infection in HIV-positive patients with low CD4+ counts. Pneumocystis pneumonia is caused by the opportunistic pathogen Pneumocystis jirovecii, which can lead to severe respiratory distress and mortality in immunocompromised individuals. The other choices, A: Salmonella infection, B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and C: Clostridium difficile, can also cause infections in HIV-positive patients, but they are not as commonly associated with life-threatening complications in this population compared to Pneumocystis pneumonia. It is crucial for the nurse to prioritize assessment for signs and symptoms of Pneumocystis pneumonia in this patient to promptly intervene and prevent further complications.

Question 3 of 5

A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma and the nurse is preparing health education regarding the patients medication regimen. The patient states that she is eager to beat this disease and looks forward to the time that she will no longer require medication. How should the nurse best respond?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications. 1. Glaucoma is a chronic condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure. 2. Lifelong treatment is usually necessary to manage intraocular pressure and prevent vision loss. 3. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to worsening of the condition. 4. Therefore, the nurse should educate the patient about the need for ongoing medication to manage glaucoma effectively. Summary: A: Incorrect. Having a positive attitude is beneficial, but it does not shorten the duration of glaucoma treatment. C: Incorrect. The target intraocular pressure is usually below 21 mm Hg, not 50 mm Hg. D: Incorrect. Glaucoma treatment is typically long-term, not limited to 6 months.

Question 4 of 5

A patient, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious. 1. The patient's newborn is at risk of contracting chickenpox from the infected children. 2. Chickenpox can be severe in newborns due to their immature immune systems. 3. It is crucial to protect the newborn by ensuring they are not exposed to the virus. 4. Staying elsewhere until the children are no longer contagious will prevent transmission to the newborn. Incorrect choices: A: Acyclovir is not recommended for prophylactic treatment in this situation. B: Immunity is not automatically transferred from the mother to the baby for chickenpox. C: Allowing the infected children to visit with precautions is not sufficient to protect the newborn.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acyclovir (Zovirax). Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes infections, including genital herpes. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby suppressing symptoms and shortening the course of the infection. Clotrimazole (A) is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, not effective against viral infections like herpes. Metronidazole (B) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not effective against viruses. Podophyllin (C) is a topical treatment for genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), not effective for herpes. Therefore, the correct choice is Acyclovir (D) for treating genital herpes exacerbation.

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