ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse practitioner assesses the patient and diagnoses Gardnerella vaginalis. What would be the most appropriate nursing action at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advise the patient that this is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. This is correct because Gardnerella vaginalis is a bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, which is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. By advising the patient of this, the nurse practitioner can provide education on the condition and treatment options. B: Discussing the effect of this diagnosis on the patient's fertility is incorrect as Gardnerella vaginalis is not typically associated with fertility issues. C: Documenting the vaginal discharge as normal is incorrect as Gardnerella vaginalis is indicative of an abnormal vaginal flora imbalance. D: Administering acyclovir as ordered is incorrect as acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
Question 2 of 5
A patient, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious. 1. The patient's newborn is at risk of contracting chickenpox from the infected children. 2. Chickenpox can be severe in newborns due to their immature immune systems. 3. It is crucial to protect the newborn by ensuring they are not exposed to the virus. 4. Staying elsewhere until the children are no longer contagious will prevent transmission to the newborn. Incorrect choices: A: Acyclovir is not recommended for prophylactic treatment in this situation. B: Immunity is not automatically transferred from the mother to the baby for chickenpox. C: Allowing the infected children to visit with precautions is not sufficient to protect the newborn.
Question 3 of 5
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
Question 4 of 5
A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is having decreased sensitivity to touch of the involved nerve. What should the nurse recommend to prevent atrophy of the muscles?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blowing up balloons. Blowing up balloons involves the activation of the facial muscles, which helps prevent muscle atrophy in patients with Bell's palsy. This exercise promotes muscle strength and prevents weakness. Deliberately frowning (B), smiling repeatedly (C), and whistling (D) do not specifically target the facial muscles involved in Bell's palsy and may not be as effective in preventing muscle atrophy.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acyclovir (Zovirax). Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes infections, including genital herpes. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby suppressing symptoms and shortening the course of the infection. Clotrimazole (A) is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, not effective against viral infections like herpes. Metronidazole (B) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not effective against viruses. Podophyllin (C) is a topical treatment for genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), not effective for herpes. Therefore, the correct choice is Acyclovir (D) for treating genital herpes exacerbation.
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