ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A hospice nurse is caring for a 22-year-old with a terminal diagnosis of leukemia. When updating this patients plan of nursing care, what should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing realistic emotional preparation for death is a priority in caring for a patient with a terminal illness like leukemia. This helps the patient and their loved ones cope with the impending loss and make the most of the time left. Option A focuses solely on prolonging life, which may not align with the patient's wishes. Option B, providing financial advice, is important but not the top priority in this situation. Option D, maximizing family social interactions after the patient's death, is not immediate and does not address the patient's emotional needs.
Question 2 of 5
A patient on the medical unit is dying and the nurse has determined that the familys psychosocial needs during the dying process need to be addressed. What is a cause of many patient care dilemmas at the end of life?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial of imminent death on the part of the family or the patient. This is a common cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life because denial can lead to unrealistic expectations, difficulty in making important decisions, and inadequate planning for end-of-life care. This can result in unnecessary suffering for the patient and added stress for the family. Incorrect choices: A: Poor communication between the family and the care team can contribute to challenges in providing appropriate care but may not be the primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life. C: Limited visitation opportunities for friends and family, while important for psychosocial support, may not directly cause patient care dilemmas. D: Conflict between family members can complicate decision-making processes, but it is not necessarily a primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life.
Question 3 of 5
A laboratory finding indicatiNveU oRf SDIICN iGs oTnBe .thCatO sMhows
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: decreased fibrinogen. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of coagulation leading to consumption of clotting factors like fibrinogen, resulting in decreased levels. Platelets are usually decreased, not increased, in DIC. Hematocrit may be elevated due to hemoconcentration but not directly related to DIC. Thromboplastin time would be prolonged, not decreased, in DIC due to consumption of clotting factors.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with a brain tumor has begun to exhibit signs of cachexia. What subsequent assessment should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessment of nutritional status. Cachexia is a complex metabolic syndrome characterized by weight loss, muscle wasting, and weakness commonly seen in cancer patients. Assessing the patient's nutritional status is crucial to address the underlying causes of cachexia and to develop an appropriate management plan. This assessment includes evaluating dietary intake, weight changes, body composition, and nutritional deficiencies. Choice A: Assessment of peripheral nervous function is not the priority in this case as cachexia is primarily related to metabolic and nutritional issues rather than peripheral nervous system dysfunction. Choice B: Assessment of cranial nerve function is also not the priority since cachexia is not directly associated with cranial nerve dysfunction. Choice D: Assessment of respiratory status may be important in general patient care, but in this case, addressing the underlying nutritional issues that are contributing to cachexia should be the priority.
Question 5 of 5
A 60-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining that his breasts are tender and enlarging. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with gynecomastia. The patient should be assessed for the possibility of what causative factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication adverse effects. Gynecomastia in a 60-year-old man is often caused by medications like spironolactone, cimetidine, and certain antipsychotics. To determine the causative factor, a thorough medication history review is crucial. Age-related physiologic changes (choice A) do not typically lead to gynecomastia in men. Poor nutrition (choice C) and fluid overload (choice D) are not common causes of gynecomastia in this context.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access