foundations of nursing test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome. C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome. D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because administering a lethal dose of medication to a patient whose death is imminent directly causes the patient's death, constituting assisted suicide. This action is intentional and aims to end the patient's life. In contrast, choices B, C, and D do not involve intentionally causing the patient's death. Choice B involves a medication error but not with the intent to end the patient's life. Choice C respects the patient's autonomy in refusing treatment. Choice D honors the patient's wishes for end-of-life care. Thus, only choice A aligns with the definition of assisted suicide.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asian Americans. Asian Americans have a higher incidence of liver cancer compared to other population groups due to factors such as chronic hepatitis B infection and dietary aflatoxin exposure. Monitoring this group closely is essential for early detection and intervention. Incorrect choices: A: Hispanic - While Hispanics have a higher prevalence of fatty liver disease, the highest risk of liver cancer is not among this group. C: Non-Hispanic Caucasians - Caucasians have a lower incidence of liver cancer compared to Asian Americans. D: Non-Hispanic African-Americans - African-Americans have a lower risk of liver cancer compared to Asian Americans due to differences in risk factors and prevalence of hepatitis B.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication adverse effects. Gynecomastia in a 60-year-old man is often caused by medications like spironolactone, cimetidine, and certain antipsychotics. To determine the causative factor, a thorough medication history review is crucial. Age-related physiologic changes (choice A) do not typically lead to gynecomastia in men. Poor nutrition (choice C) and fluid overload (choice D) are not common causes of gynecomastia in this context.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, which is to arrange a referral to a community-based support program. This option is the most appropriate because it offers the patient ongoing support from individuals who understand what she is going through. Community-based support programs can provide a safe space for the patient to share her feelings, connect with others in similar situations, and access additional resources for coping. This intervention focuses on providing the patient with adequate support beyond the immediate recovery period, which is crucial for long-term coping and adjustment. Option A is incorrect as it may not consider the patient's individual needs for support beyond her spouse or partner. Option B may be premature as the patient might need time to process her diagnosis and surgery before moving on to the next phase of treatment. Option C may put undue pressure on the patient to maintain a specific emotional state for the sake of others, which may not be beneficial for her own coping and healing process.