ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client about foods that are included on a clear liquid diet. Which of the following food choices made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Yogurt. Yogurt is not part of a clear liquid diet. A clear liquid diet includes transparent or translucent liquids such as gelatin, broth, and popsicles. Yogurt is a thicker consistency and contains solid particles, making it inappropriate for a clear liquid diet. Choices A, B, and C are suitable options for a client following a clear liquid diet.
Question 3 of 5
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring for signs of pulmonary embolism is crucial in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it can be a life-threatening complication. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed is important for preventing clot progression, the immediate concern is detecting potential pulmonary embolism. Applying compression stockings and encouraging leg elevation are beneficial measures for managing DVT symptoms but are not as critical as monitoring for pulmonary embolism.
Question 4 of 5
A patient receiving chemotherapy has developed neutropenia. What should be included in the care plan to reduce infection risk?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia, the priority is to reduce the risk of infection. Using reverse isolation precautions is crucial in this situation to protect the patient from exposure to pathogens. Monitoring temperature daily (Choice A) is important but is not as effective as isolating the patient. Limiting visitors (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure, but reverse isolation is a more stringent measure. Administering antibiotics prophylactically (Choice C) is not recommended unless there is a specific indication, as it can contribute to antibiotic resistance.
Question 5 of 5
A client has hypertension and a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a 12-lead ECG is crucial in this situation to assess cardiac function due to the elevated potassium level. High potassium levels can lead to dangerous arrhythmias, and an ECG helps in detecting any cardiac abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suggesting a salt substitute can further elevate the client's potassium levels. Checking serum sodium levels is not the priority when dealing with high potassium levels. Advising the client to add citrus juices and bananas, which are high in potassium, would worsen the situation.
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