ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adjuvant therapies. Adjuvant therapies are additional treatments given after the primary treatment, usually surgery, to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. In the context of fixed tumors, adjuvant therapies can help target any remaining cancer cells that may not have been completely removed during surgery, thus improving the chances of a successful outcome. En bloc resection (A) is important for complete tumor removal but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery and are not typically used for fixed tumors. Elective lymph node dissection (D) may be necessary in some cases but is not the best approach for curative surgery in fixed tumors.
Question 2 of 5
Signs of obstructed labor per vaginally include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs of obstructed labor include a dry vagina due to prolonged pressure, oedema of the cervix due to prolonged contractions, and caput succedaneum which is swelling of the baby's scalp from prolonged pressure. Choice B is incorrect because plenty of amniotic fluid is not a sign of obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Meconium-stained liquor can be a sign of fetal distress, but not specifically obstructed labor. Choice C is incorrect because meconium-stained liquor is a sign of fetal distress, not necessarily obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Diluted urine is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Choice D is incorrect because while caput succedaneum is a sign of obstructed labor, oedema of the cervix is more indicative of obstructed labor than plenty of amni
Question 3 of 5
The last part to be replaced in uterine inversion is the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fundus. In uterine inversion, the uterus is turned inside out, with the fundus protruding through the cervix. The fundus is the last part to be replaced during the reduction process because it is the uppermost part of the uterus. The cervix, isthmus, and body are other parts of the uterus that are not the last to be replaced in uterine inversion. The cervix is the lower part, the isthmus is the narrow portion, and the body is the main part of the uterus. Hence, the fundus is the correct choice for the last part to be replaced in uterine inversion.
Question 4 of 5
What is the significance of amniotic fluid analysis during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess fetal lung maturity. Amniotic fluid analysis measures the levels of substances like surfactant, which indicates lung maturity. This helps in determining if the fetus is ready for delivery. Other choices are incorrect because amniotic fluid analysis is not primarily used to detect fetal infections (A), determine fetal position (C), or assess placental health (D). These functions are typically achieved through other diagnostic tests or imaging techniques.
Question 5 of 5
Effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because preeclampsia can lead to poor placental anchorage, which results in reduced blood flow to the placenta, leading to severe infarction. This can cause adverse effects on the fetus and the mother. Choice A is incorrect because infarcts and placental abruption are not specific effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because lowered vaginal discharge pH and hemorrhage are not typical effects of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect because congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia are not direct effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system.
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