Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because preeclampsia can lead to poor placental anchorage, which results in reduced blood flow to the placenta, leading to severe infarction. This can cause adverse effects on the fetus and the mother. Choice A is incorrect because infarcts and placental abruption are not specific effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because lowered vaginal discharge pH and hemorrhage are not typical effects of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect because congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia are not direct effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct initial action for the AGACNP is to provide counseling to the patient regarding her options (Choice D). This is important to ensure the patient's safety, well-being, and autonomy. Counseling will allow the patient to explore her feelings, understand her options, and make an informed decision about her next steps. Reporting the physical assault to law enforcement (Choice A) should only be done with the patient's consent to respect her wishes. Having the patient sign a release to go home with her husband (Choice B) could potentially put the patient at risk of further harm. Consulting psychiatry for a psych hold (Choice C) may not be appropriate unless the patient is deemed a danger to herself or others.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma are at risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss. Step 2: Encouraging plenty of fluids helps maintain hydration levels. Step 3: Proper hydration supports kidney function and aids in flushing out bacteria, reducing infection risk. Step 4: Adequate hydration also promotes tissue healing and prevents complications. Step 5: Therefore, the main aim of encouraging plenty of fluids is to keep the client well hydrated.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative. In this scenario, Jennifer has a positive PPD test with a 12-mm induration but a negative chest radiograph, indicating latent TB infection. The negative chest radiograph rules out active TB disease. As a result, Jennifer does not require further evaluation or treatment for active TB. The positive PPD alone does not warrant further investigations such as Quantiferon assay (B) or prophylactic therapy (C) as these are not indicated for latent TB infection without active disease. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB (D) is unnecessary and potentially harmful as Jennifer does not have active TB. Thus, the correct course of action is to provide no further care based on the negative chest radiograph.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric retention. Mrs. Coates' symptoms of persistent and progressive discomfort are not likely due to gastric retention because she underwent a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer, which would bypass the stomach. Therefore, gastric retention is not a possible cause. A: Colic due to return of peristalsis is a possible cause as peristalsis returning after surgery can cause discomfort. B: Leakage from the duodenal stump is a possible cause as it can lead to abdominal discomfort postoperatively. D: Hemorrhage is a possible cause given her history of bleeding ulcer and surgery.