Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because preeclampsia can lead to poor placental anchorage, which results in reduced blood flow to the placenta, leading to severe infarction. This can cause adverse effects on the fetus and the mother. Choice A is incorrect because infarcts and placental abruption are not specific effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because lowered vaginal discharge pH and hemorrhage are not typical effects of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect because congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia are not direct effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal head retracts against the perineum. This sign indicates possible shoulder dystocia as it suggests the baby's shoulders are impacted and unable to pass through the birth canal. The retraction of the fetal head against the perineum is a classic sign of shoulder dystocia, which requires specific maneuvers to dislodge the shoulders and facilitate delivery. A: Failure of internal rotation of the head is not specific to shoulder dystocia. C: Gentle traction should not be applied in cases of shoulder dystocia as it can worsen the situation. D: The occiput restituting towards the left side is not a sign of shoulder dystocia, as it refers to the rotation of the fetal head during delivery.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions can mimic postpartum eclampsia due to similarities in symptoms such as seizures and hypertension. However, the key differentiator is the timing of onset - postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, while amniotic fluid embolism typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the timing and clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism. Antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery, stroke presents with neurological deficits, and pre-existing epilepsy is a chronic condition unrelated to the immediate postpartum period.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marked limitation of physical activity. In cardiac disease grading, grade III signifies marked limitation of physical activity. This indicates that the patient experiences symptoms with less than ordinary physical activity, such as shortness of breath or chest pain. This grade reflects significant impairment in daily activities due to cardiac issues. A: Patient is comfortable even at rest - This describes grade I, where patients are comfortable at rest. B: Patient is asymptomatic initially - This describes pre-symptomatic stages before any limitations in physical activity. D: Absolute limitation of physical activity - This is more severe and indicative of grade IV, where any physical activity causes discomfort or symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because precipitate labor is defined as labor that is concluded in less than three hours. This rapid progression can lead to complications such as increased risk of tearing and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect because it describes a different condition where the cervix fails to dilate despite good contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the definition of precipitate labor. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a scenario where the cervix fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions, which is not characteristic of precipitate labor. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer based on the definition and characteristics of precipitate labor.