ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

Questions 122

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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels.

Question 2 of 5

During transfusion of a unit of whole blood, a nurse is assessing a client who develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms indicate circulatory overload, which can occur during blood transfusions. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such cases to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Epinephrine is used for severe allergic reactions, lorazepam for anxiety or seizures, and diphenhydramine for mild allergic reactions or as a sedative.

Question 3 of 5

A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.

Question 4 of 5

During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia.

Question 5 of 5

A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring urine for calcium is essential. Somatropin can lead to increased calcium levels in the urine, potentially increasing the risk of renal calculi formation. Therefore, assessing for calcium in the urine helps in early detection and prevention of this complication.

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