ATI Exit Exam 2024

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of morphine is the most appropriate action to manage postoperative pain in a client following a colon resection. Morphine is a potent analgesic commonly used to relieve moderate to severe pain, especially in postoperative settings. While assisting the client to change positions in bed, encouraging relaxation techniques, and offering a back massage can provide comfort and support, they may not be sufficient in managing the pain following a major surgical procedure like a colon resection. Therefore, the priority intervention for acute postoperative pain control in this scenario is to administer medication like morphine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A lack of tear production is a sign of severe dehydration in infants, indicating the need for IV therapy. Option B, bulging fontanels, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not dehydration. Option C, breathing slower than normal, and Option D, decreasing heart rate, are not specific signs of severe dehydration that would indicate the need for IV therapy in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking digoxin should check their pulse before each dose to ensure it is within the appropriate range. Option A is incorrect because stopping the medication based solely on a heart rate below 80/min is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as having a pulse above 100/min doesn't necessarily indicate a need to stop digoxin. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with an antacid as it can interfere with its absorption.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sanguineous drainage from the surgical site 48 hours after surgery could indicate a complication such as hemorrhage or infection and should be reported. Sanguineous drainage is typically seen in the early postoperative period due to the presence of blood. Serous drainage, on the other hand, is normal in the later stages of wound healing. A heart rate of 80/min is within the normal range for an adult. A temperature of 37.5�C (99.5�F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in the absence of other symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During a situation where a client is exhibiting violent behavior like throwing objects and posing a risk to themselves and others, the immediate priority is to ensure the safety of all involved. Placing the client in seclusion is a necessary intervention to prevent harm and allow for de-escalation. Asking the client to identify the trigger or instructing them to calm down may not be effective or safe in this escalated state. Encouraging the client to attend group therapy is not suitable when they are in an agitated and aggressive state that requires immediate intervention.