ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for a nurse caring for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to bleeding problems. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, which in turn prevents straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control rather than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is not directly linked to managing thrombocytopenia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship. Which statement should the nurse make during this phase?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship, it is crucial to establish roles. This helps both the client and the nurse understand their responsibilities, boundaries, and expectations within the therapeutic process. Choice A is more focused on the working phase where strategies and interventions are discussed. Choice C is more suitable for the working phase where specific techniques are usually introduced. Choice D is also more relevant to the working phase as it involves discussing practical resources for implementation in daily life.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a new onset of tachypnea can indicate a respiratory complication, which requires immediate assessment. Sinus arrhythmia, epidural analgesia with weakness, and a hemoglobin A1C level of 6.8% in a client with diabetes do not pose immediate life-threatening concerns that require urgent assessment compared to the potential respiratory issues associated with tachypnea.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports intimate partner violence. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to develop a safety plan with the client. In cases of intimate partner violence, the priority is to ensure the client's immediate safety. While referring the client to a community support group (choice B) and determining if the client has any injuries (choice C) are important interventions, ensuring the client's safety through a safety plan takes precedence. Contacting the client's family about the incident (choice D) may not be appropriate as it can further endanger the client.
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