Nursing Process Final Exam Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. The nurse wrote a diagnosis related to enhancing the patient's urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, which focuses on promoting the patient's health and well-being. The Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination diagnosis indicates the patient's motivation and readiness to improve their urinary elimination abilities, aligning with the concept of health promotion. This type of diagnosis acknowledges the patient's potential for growth and improvement in their health status. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This choice would be more appropriate if the diagnosis focused on potential complications or adverse events related to the patient's urinary elimination abilities. B: Problem focused - This choice would be suitable if the diagnosis identified an existing issue or problem with the patient's urinary elimination abilities that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This choice would be relevant if the diagnosis required collaboration between healthcare providers to manage the patient's urinary elimination abilities effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Creamy white patches. These patches are indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection seen in individuals with weakened immune systems like those with AIDS. This infection is caused by Candida albicans. It presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth. Halitosis (A) is bad breath, not specific to AIDS. Carious teeth (C) refers to cavities, not directly related to AIDS. Swollen lips (D) can be a symptom of various oral conditions, but not specific to AIDS. In summary, creamy white patches are a characteristic oral problem associated with AIDS due to opportunistic infections like oral thrush.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient lie flat for 6 to 8 hours after a lumbar puncture to prevent complications like post-lumbar puncture headache. Lying flat helps maintain CSF pressure and reduce the risk of leakage. B: Keeping the patient from eating or drinking for 4 hours is not necessary after a lumbar puncture. C: Monitoring pedal pulses q4h is irrelevant to post-lumbar puncture care. D: Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees for 24 hours is not recommended after a lumbar puncture as it may increase the risk of complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to central obesity with fat accumulation in the trunk and dorsocervical area (buffalo hump). This is due to cortisol's role in redistributing fat. A: hypotension is incorrect because individuals with Cushing's syndrome typically have hypertension due to the effects of excess cortisol on blood pressure regulation. B: thick, coarse skin is incorrect as individuals with Cushing's syndrome may have thin, fragile skin due to decreased collagen formation. D: weight gain in arms and legs is incorrect as the weight gain in Cushing's syndrome tends to be centralized in the trunk and face rather than the extremities.