WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

Questions 39

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WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has been admitted to the hospital with symptoms of Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Which aspect of the client's condition would require priority monitoring?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barr� syndrome, respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory compromise, making it crucial to prioritize monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is important but is secondary to assessing for respiratory compromise in this condition. Changes in consciousness and monitoring blood pressure closely are not typically the priority in Guillain-Barr� syndrome.

Question 2 of 5

The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Poor feeding and constipation are common early symptoms of infant botulism, which is caused by a neurotoxin that impairs muscle function. Option A is unrelated to the presentation of botulism. Option C does not directly relate to the symptoms of botulism. Option D is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than the constellation of symptoms seen in botulism.

Question 3 of 5

A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is experiencing a relapse. Which of the following factors is most likely contributing to the relapse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Emotional stress can trigger a relapse in multiple sclerosis by exacerbating symptoms. While taking an over-the-counter multivitamin and getting a flu shot are generally safe, they are not typically known to trigger MS relapses. Engaging in strenuous physical activity, if done carefully, can actually have benefits for individuals with MS by improving strength and mobility, so it is less likely to be the cause of a relapse.

Question 4 of 5

When teaching a patient about the use of finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), what should the nurse emphasize about the expected outcomes of this therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable as it works by shrinking the prostate gland over time. Therefore, patients should be informed that improvement in symptoms may not be immediate. Choice A is incorrect because improvement in symptoms is not expected within a few days. Choice C is incorrect as immediate improvement in urinary flow is not typical with finasteride. Choice D is incorrect because finasteride manages BPH symptoms but does not cure the condition.

Question 5 of 5

What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are aware of the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it has been linked to an increased risk of this condition. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT may have positive effects on mood and energy levels for some individuals, the focus here is on the long-term risks that need to be addressed. Choice D is incorrect as HRT is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, but the primary focus of the question is on cardiovascular events and breast cancer.

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