WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

Questions 39

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WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has been admitted to the hospital with symptoms of Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Which aspect of the client's condition would require priority monitoring?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barr� syndrome, respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory compromise, making it crucial to prioritize monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is important but is secondary to assessing for respiratory compromise in this condition. Changes in consciousness and monitoring blood pressure closely are not typically the priority in Guillain-Barr� syndrome.

Question 2 of 5

In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.

Question 3 of 5

A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

Question 4 of 5

When a healthcare professional notices that a patient has type O blood, they realize that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient's body.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with type O blood have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their body. This is because type O blood lacks A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, causing the body to produce antibodies against both A and B antigens. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A and B only antibodies are incorrect because type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Choice D is incorrect as O represents the blood type itself, not the antibodies present in the blood.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a pneumothorax is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the treatment is effective?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax receiving oxygen therapy, improved breath sounds on the affected side would indicate effective treatment. This finding suggests that the collapsed lung is re-expanding, allowing air to flow more freely in and out of the affected area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Increased respiratory rate, decreased oxygen saturation levels, and increased dyspnea and chest pain are signs of ineffective treatment or worsening of the condition in a client with a pneumothorax.

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