WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

Questions 39

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

Question 2 of 5

A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

Question 3 of 5

A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.

Question 4 of 5

A woman with severe visual and auditory deficits is able to identify individuals by running her fingers lightly over her face. Which source is most likely to provide the input that allows for the woman's unique ability?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, special visceral afferent cells. These cells are responsible for functions like taste and smell. In individuals with severe visual and auditory deficits, their other sensory abilities, such as touch, can be heightened. Special somatic afferent fibers (choice A) are involved in sensations like touch and vibration from the skin and muscles, but they are not specific to the face. General somatic afferents (choice B) transmit sensory information from the skin, muscles, and joints, but they are not specialized for the unique ability described. General visceral afferent neurons (choice D) are responsible for transmitting sensory information from internal organs, not relevant to the woman's ability to identify individuals through touch on her face.

Question 5 of 5

When a healthcare professional notices that a patient has type O blood, they realize that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient's body.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with type O blood have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their body. This is because type O blood lacks A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, causing the body to produce antibodies against both A and B antigens. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A and B only antibodies are incorrect because type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Choice D is incorrect as O represents the blood type itself, not the antibodies present in the blood.

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