Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process

Questions 67

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V Pap test finding indicates severe abnormalities, such as high-grade dysplasia or carcinoma in situ. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to undergo a biopsy as soon as possible to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a class V result is not normal and requires immediate follow-up, rather than waiting or repeating the Pap test at a later time.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. What is the best way to protect this client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use the smallest needle possible for injections. In a client with thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), there is an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Using the smallest needle possible for injections reduces the risk of causing injury to blood vessels and tissues, minimizing bleeding complications. Limiting visits by family members (choice A) is not directly related to protecting the client's safety. Encouraging wheelchair use (choice B) is not necessary unless indicated for mobility reasons. Maintaining accurate fluid intake and output records (choice D) is important for overall client care but does not directly address the risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.

Question 3 of 5

On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, a client exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a life- threatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Following thyroid surgery, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. 2. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle twitching, hyperirritability, numbness, and tingling. 3. These symptoms align with the client's presentation, indicating a probable electrolyte imbalance. 4. Hypocalcemia is a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to parathyroid gland damage. 5. Prompt recognition and treatment of hypocalcemia are essential to prevent severe complications. Summary: B: Hyperkalemia - Not typically associated with thyroid surgery, symptoms differ. C: Hyponatremia - Unlikely post-thyroidectomy, symptoms don't match presentation. D: Hypermagnesemia - Rare post-thyroidectomy, symptoms and electrolyte disturbance don't align.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the ff. actions would the nurse include in the plan of care to reduce the symptoms of the patient who has vertigo?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid sudden movements. Vertigo is a type of dizziness where a person feels like they're spinning or the world around them is spinning. Sudden movements can worsen vertigo symptoms. By avoiding sudden movements, the nurse can help reduce the patient's vertigo symptoms. Avoiding noises (A) may help with other conditions like migraines, but it is not specifically helpful for vertigo. Encouraging fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not directly address vertigo symptoms. Administering analgesics (D) may help with pain but will not address the underlying cause of vertigo. Therefore, choosing option C is the most appropriate action to include in the plan of care for reducing vertigo symptoms.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following are examples of common factors in a client that may influence assessment priorities?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diet and exercise program. This is because a client's diet and exercise program directly impact their physical health and well-being, making it an important factor to consider when determining assessment priorities. Understanding their dietary habits and level of physical activity can help identify potential health risks or areas for improvement. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the client's physical health and well-being, which are crucial factors in determining assessment priorities. Standing in the community (B) may influence social interactions but does not necessarily impact assessment priorities. Ability to pay for services (C) relates to financial considerations rather than health assessment priorities. Developmental stage (D) may be important for understanding the client's cognitive and emotional development, but it is not as directly relevant to assessment priorities as diet and exercise.

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