ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

Questions 72

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is starting on atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. What critical instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Atorvastatin, like other statins, is more effective when taken in the evening as the body produces more cholesterol at night. Taking it with a high-fat meal (choice D) is not recommended as it may reduce the drug's absorption. Grapefruit juice (choice B) should be avoided with atorvastatin as it can increase the risk of side effects. Taking the medication in the morning with breakfast (choice C) is not as effective as taking it at night.

Question 3 of 5

A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following agents will assist in raising the patient's hemoglobin levels?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production and is commonly used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure. By increasing red blood cell production, epoetin alfa helps raise hemoglobin levels in these patients. Pentoxifylline (Choice B) is not indicated for raising hemoglobin levels in chronic renal failure patients; it is a peripheral vasodilator used to improve blood flow. Estazolam (Choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for treating insomnia and has no role in raising hemoglobin levels. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide (Choice D) is a cough suppressant and is not used to raise hemoglobin levels in patients with chronic renal failure.

Question 4 of 5

In a patient with HIV infected with Mycobacterium avium complex from an indoor pool, which of the following medications is the recommended treatment for MAC?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Clarithromycin. Clarithromycin is one of the recommended medications for treating Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infections in patients with HIV. It is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against MAC. Isoniazid (INH) is used to treat tuberculosis, not MAC. Rifabutin is another medication used in the treatment of MAC infections, but clarithromycin is preferred as a first-line agent. Azithromycin is also used in the treatment of MAC infections; however, clarithromycin is more commonly recommended due to its efficacy and safety profile.

Question 5 of 5

A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.

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