ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of asthma?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction." In asthma, there is an inflammatory response that leads to bronchoconstriction, causing the airways to narrow and making it difficult to breathe. Choice A is incorrect as chronic inflammation is a feature of asthma but not the primary pathophysiological mechanism. Choice C is incorrect as damage to alveoli is more characteristic of conditions like emphysema. Choice D is incorrect as overproduction of mucus is a feature of chronic bronchitis, not asthma.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has been prescribed conjugated estrogens for the treatment of menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase the intake of calcium-rich foods. Patients taking conjugated estrogens should increase their intake of calcium-rich foods to help prevent osteoporosis. Estrogen therapy can lead to an increased risk of osteoporosis, so ensuring an adequate intake of calcium is crucial. Choices B, decreasing high-fat foods, and C, avoiding tobacco, are general health recommendations but not directly related to the prescription of conjugated estrogens. Choice D, avoiding exposure to sunlight, is not a direct concern when taking conjugated estrogens.
Question 3 of 5
During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, which type of cells arrive first and in great numbers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, neutrophils are the first responders. Neutrophils arrive at the site of injury in large numbers to combat pathogens and remove debris. Basophils and lymphocytes are also involved in the inflammatory response, but they are not the first to arrive. Platelets play a role in hemostasis and blood clotting, rather than being the primary cells involved in the initial inflammatory response.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following is the most likely indication for the use of immunosuppressant agents?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Organ transplantation. Immunosuppressant agents are commonly used in organ transplant recipients to prevent organ rejection by suppressing the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Intractable seizure disorders are often managed with antiepileptic drugs, increased intracranial pressure is managed through various means like surgery and medications, and HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance is typically treated with antiretroviral therapy, not immunosuppressant agents.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which characteristic of the client's history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A history of IV drug use is significant in cases of fever of unknown origin, as it increases the risk of infections like endocarditis, which can present with persistent fever. Smoking (Choice A) is not directly linked to FUO. While a history of STD treatment (Choice C) may be relevant, it is less likely to be associated with FUO compared to IV drug use. Family history of cardiac disease (Choice D) is not typically a primary factor in the diagnosis of FUO.
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