Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition Test Bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: The description of microorganisms resembling tennis racket indicates Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the causative agent of diphtheria. Step 2: Diphtheria is a bacterial infection that can cause severe respiratory and systemic symptoms. Step 3: Botulism is caused by Clostridium botulinum, not tennis racket-shaped microorganisms. Step 4: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi, which does not resemble tennis rackets. Step 5: Salmonellosis is caused by various Salmonella species, which also do not have the described tennis racket appearance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains: S. pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci in chains. 2. Catalase-negative: S. pyogenes is catalase-negative. 3. Beta-hemolytic: S. pyogenes exhibits beta-hemolysis. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is alpha-hemolytic and optochin-sensitive. C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative, but not typically beta-hemolytic. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epidemic typhus. This disease is caused by the bacterium Rickettsia prowazekii, which is transmitted by body lice. The symptoms include high fever, body rash, and tiny wounds due to scratching. The presence of lice in the clothing suggests a possible lice-borne disease like epidemic typhus. Summary: - B: Tularemia is caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis, transmitted through ticks, deer flies, and contact with infected animals. Lice are not involved in its transmission. - C: Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, leading to itching and skin rashes. It is not associated with high fever or lice infestation. - D: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites, transmitted by infected mosquitoes. The symptoms differ from those described in the scenario, and lice are not involved in its

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, chromoblastomycosis. This is a chronic localized subcutaneous infection caused by certain fungi, resulting in verrucoid lesions on the skin. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Candidiasis is a superficial fungal infection, not characterized by verrucoid lesions. B: Leprosy is a systemic bacterial infection, not localized to the skin with verrucoid lesions. C: Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, presenting as a painful rash with blisters, not verrucoid lesions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin. Chingamin is a type of antimalarial drug that is commonly used for individual prevention of malaria. It works by targeting the malaria parasite in the body, preventing its growth and spread. Rifampicin (B), Ampicillin (C), and Gentamicin (D) are not effective for preventing malaria as they are antibiotics that target bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria. Therefore, Chingamin is the most appropriate choice for individual prevention of malaria due to its specific antimalarial properties.