Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF

Questions 81

ATI RN

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Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 68-year-old patient has been in the intensive care unit for 4 days and has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed sensory perception related to sleep deprivation. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cluster nursing activities so that the patient has uninterrupted rest periods. Rationale: 1. Clustering nursing activities allows for uninterrupted rest periods, essential for improving sleep quality and addressing disturbed sensory perception. 2. Administering sedatives or opioids (Option A) can lead to drug dependence, tolerance, and adverse effects in older adults. 3. Silencing alarms (Option C) compromises patient safety by impeding timely monitoring and response to critical events. 4. Eliminating assessments (Option D) between 0100 and 0600 disregards the necessity of monitoring vital signs and assessing patient condition around the clock.

Question 2 of 5

When assessing the patient for hypoxemia, the nurse recognizes what as an early sign of the effect of hypoxemia on the cardiovascular system?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Hypoxemia results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood, stimulating the body to increase heart rate to improve oxygen delivery. Tachycardia is an early sign of the cardiovascular system compensating for hypoxemia. Heart block (A) is a disruption in the electrical conduction within the heart and is not directly related to hypoxemia. Restlessness (B) is a non-specific sign and can be caused by various factors. Tachypnea (D) is an increased respiratory rate, which is a response to hypoxemia but not a direct effect on the cardiovascular system.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is assessing the patient�s pain using the Critical Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT). Which of the following assessments would indicate the greatest likelihood of pain and need for nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fighting the ventilator. This behavior indicates the patient is experiencing discomfort and struggling against the ventilator, suggesting a high likelihood of pain. The CPOT assesses pain through behaviors like grimacing, vocalization, and muscle tension, which are all present when a patient is fighting the ventilator. Absence of vocal sounds (Choice A) does not necessarily indicate pain as some patients may be silent even when in pain. Moving legs in bed (Choice C) could be due to restlessness rather than pain. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities (Choice D) do not reflect pain as the CPOT focuses on behaviors indicating discomfort.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because wearing the Milwaukee brace over a T-shirt ensures proper skin protection and ventilation. This helps prevent skin irritation and allows for comfortable wearing for long periods. Choice B may cause skin issues due to friction. Choice C is incorrect as moisture from showering can lead to skin problems. Choice D is incorrect as consistent wear is crucial for brace effectiveness.

Question 5 of 5

The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response causing renal hypoperfusion. Sepsis leads to a decrease in renal blood flow, resulting in acute kidney injury. Fluid overload (B) can contribute to renal dysfunction but is not the primary cause in critically ill patients. Medications (C) can cause kidney injury, but sepsis is more prevalent. Hemodynamic instability (D) is a consequence of sepsis and can lead to acute kidney injury, making it an indirect cause.

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