Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhaled bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids. Bronchodilators help to quickly open up the airways during an asthma exacerbation, providing immediate relief. Intravenous corticosteroids help reduce airway inflammation and prevent further worsening of symptoms. Corticosteroids by mouth (Choice A) are not as effective as intravenous administration during an acute exacerbation. Prone positioning or continuous lateral rotation (Choice C) is not a recommended treatment for asthma exacerbation. Sedation and inhaled bronchodilators (Choice D) are not appropriate as sedation can depress respiratory function and worsen the condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it shows understanding that the PAC helps in managing fluid therapy effectively. The PAC measures pressures in the heart and lungs, guiding fluid management. Choice A is incorrect as the PAC is not primarily for IV fluid administration. Choice C shows understanding of the catheter placement but not its purpose. Choice D is incorrect as the PAC is not for the heart to heal but to monitor cardiac status.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function. Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide anti-inflammatory response. NSAIDs work by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase, thereby reducing inflammation, pain, and fever. This is different from acetaminophen, which primarily acts as a pain reliever and fever reducer but lacks significant anti-inflammatory properties. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Are less expensive - Cost is not related to the therapeutic action of NSAIDs. C: Increase hepatotoxic side effects - While NSAIDs can have adverse effects on the liver, hepatotoxicity is not a primary therapeutic action of these drugs. D: Cause gastrointestinal bleeding - While NSAIDs can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, this is a potential side effect rather than the primary therapeutic action.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alarm stage. The husband's rapid heart rate indicates the initial alarm reaction to stress, characterized by physiological arousal. This stage involves the body's fight-or-flight response to a stressor. In this scenario, the husband is experiencing the physiological effects of the stressful situation, such as the auto accident and loss of a limb. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Exhaustion stage occurs if stress continues without relief, leading to depletion of resources and increased vulnerability to illness. C: Resistance stage is the body's attempt to adapt and cope with the stressor after the initial alarm reaction. D: Adaptation stage is not a recognized stage in the general adaptation syndrome model.