Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperparathyroidism. This disorder is characterized by excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood. The symptoms described in the question - bone pain, weakness, irritability, and depression - are all associated with hypercalcemia, a common manifestation of hyperparathyroidism. Additionally, the client's anorexia and increased urination can be attributed to the effects of hypercalcemia on the gastrointestinal and renal systems. Diabetes mellitus (choice A) involves high blood sugar levels and is not associated with the symptoms described. Hypoparathyroidism (choice B) is characterized by low levels of parathyroid hormone and calcium, leading to different symptoms such as muscle cramps and seizures. Diabetes insipidus (choice C) is a disorder of water balance characterized by excessive thirst and urination, not the symptoms presented in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. By approaching the patient from the other side, the nurse can assess if the patient has a visual field deficit. 2. This step helps determine if the lack of response is due to a sensory issue. 3. It allows the nurse to rule out unilateral neglect or hemianopsia. 4. Walking to the other side is a basic assessment technique to evaluate visual and sensory deficits in poststroke patients. Other Choices: B. Speaking more loudly and clearly may not address the potential sensory issues the patient is experiencing. C. Waving fingers in front of the patient's face does not provide a comprehensive assessment of visual field deficits. D. Using a picture may be helpful, but addressing the potential visual field deficit should be prioritized first.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (5 to 10 mcg/ml) because this range is typically considered therapeutic for phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Levels below 5 mcg/ml may be subtherapeutic, leading to inadequate seizure control. Levels above 10 mcg/ml can increase the risk of toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are outside the optimal therapeutic range, leading to either ineffective treatment (B, C) or an increased risk of adverse effects (D). Monitoring drug levels helps ensure the medication's effectiveness while minimizing side effects.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium is a major cause of peptic ulcers by weakening the protective mucous layer of the stomach and duodenum. Research has shown a strong association between H. pylori infection and peptic ulcer development. Genetic defects in the gastric mucosa (choice A) are not a proven cause of peptic ulcers. While a high-fat diet (choice C) can exacerbate symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Work-related stress (choice D) may exacerbate symptoms but is not a direct cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, choice B is the most supported and logical answer based on current research findings.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basilic vein. It is preferred for IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, and lower risk of complications. Basilic vein is deep and stable, aiding in successful catheter insertion and reduced risk of infiltration. Jugular vein (A) is not typically used due to the high risk of complications like infection. Brachiocephalic (C) and Axillary (D) veins are less commonly used as they are smaller and more prone to complications compared to the Basilic vein. In summary, the Basilic vein is the optimal choice for initiating IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, stability, and lower risk of complications.