ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 67-year-old retired janitor comes to the clinic with his wife. She brought him in because she is concerned about his weight loss. He has a history of smoking 3 packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years, for a total of 90 pack-years. He has noticed a daily cough for the past several years, which he states is productive of sputum. He came into the clinic approximately 1 year ago, and at that time his weight was 140 pounds. Today, his weight is 110 pounds. Which one of the following questions would be the most important to ask if you suspect that he has lung cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most important question to ask in this scenario would be if the patient has tried to lose weight. Given the patient's significant unintentional weight loss (from 140 to 110 pounds in a year), especially in the context of a chronic cough and a long history of smoking, lung cancer becomes a top concern. Unintentional weight loss is a common symptom seen in patients with lung cancer. Therefore, understanding if the weight loss was intentional or unintentional can provide crucial information in the diagnostic evaluation for possible lung cancer.
Question 2 of 5
A 56-year-old homosexual man presents with itching, anorectal pain, and tenesmus of 1 week's duration. Rectal examination reveals generalized tenderness without frank prostate abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Given the patient's presentation of itching, anorectal pain, and tenesmus, along with rectal examination findings of generalized tenderness without prostate abnormalities, proctitis is the most likely diagnosis. Proctitis is inflammation of the rectal lining and is commonly associated with symptoms such as rectal pain, itching, tenesmus (feeling of incomplete defecation), and sometimes rectal bleeding. It can have various causes, including sexually transmitted infections (such as gonorrhea, chlamydia), inflammatory bowel disease, radiation therapy, or trauma.
Question 3 of 5
A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about 3 days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, 3 days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over 50 years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative. His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending. What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms and signs is acute diverticulitis. His presentation of abdominal pain, constipation, and low-grade fever, along with tenderness over the left lower quadrant, is consistent with diverticulitis, which is inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can develop in the colon. The history of recent onset of symptoms after consuming popcorn, typically a high-fiber food that can exacerbate diverticulitis, further supports this diagnosis. The negative fecal occult blood test makes more acute intra-abdominal processes like acute appendicitis less likely. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain, and mesenteric ischemia typically presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, as well as signs of abdominal distress.
Question 4 of 5
A mother brings her 11 month old to you because her mother-in-law and others have told her that her baby is jaundiced. She is eating and growing well and performing the developmental milestones she should for her age. On examination you indeed notice a yellow tone to her skin from head to toe. Her sclerae are white. To which area should your next questions be related?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Since the baby is exhibiting jaundice, which is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin, it is important to inquire about the family history of liver diseases. Jaundice can be a sign of liver dysfunction or disease, so understanding the family history of liver diseases can provide valuable insights into potential underlying causes for the baby's jaundice. In this case, it is crucial to explore this area further to determine if there may be any genetic predispositions or familial conditions that could be contributing to the baby's presentation of jaundice.
Question 5 of 5
His head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. There are some crackles in the bases of each lung. During his cardiac examination there is an extra heart sound. Visualization of his penis shows an uncircumcised prepuce but no lesions or masses. Palpation of his scrotum shows generalized swelling, with no discrete masses. A gloved finger is placed through each inguinal ring, and with bearing down there are no bulges. The prostate is smooth and nontender. What abnormality of the scrotum is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scrotal edema refers to swelling of the scrotum, which can be caused by various reasons such as infection, inflammation, trauma, or fluid collection. In this case, the examination findings of generalized swelling of the scrotum with no discrete masses or bulges on palpation suggest scrotal edema as the most likely diagnosis. The absence of bulges when a finger is placed through the inguinal rings with bearing down rules out a scrotal hernia. Hydrocele typically presents as a painless fluid-filled sac around the testicle, but there are no specific findings mentioned in the scenario to suggest a hydrocele. Varicocele involves dilated veins in the scrotum and may present as a soft lump that feels like a "bag of worms," which is not described in the examination findings provided.
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