NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment

Questions 28

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NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 72-year-old teacher comes to your clinic for an annual examination. She is concerned about her risk for peripheral vascular disease and states that there is a place in town that does tests to let her know her if she has this or not. Which of the following disease processes is a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Coronary artery disease (CAD) is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease (PVD). CAD is a condition where plaque builds up in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle. This process is called atherosclerosis. Similarly, in PVD, atherosclerosis occurs in the peripheral arteries, affecting blood flow to the extremities, most commonly the legs. Individuals with CAD often have systemic atherosclerosis, which puts them at higher risk for developing PVD. Therefore, it is important for the 72-year-old teacher with CAD to be aware of this risk factor for PVD and consider appropriate screening and preventive measures.

Question 2 of 5

Mark is a contractor who recently injured his back. He was told he had a "bulging disc" to account for the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop. The vertebral bodies of the spine involve which type of joint?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The vertebral bodies of the spine involve cartilaginous joints. Cartilaginous joints are connected by cartilage, which allows for slight movement and flexibility. In the spine, the cartilaginous joints between vertebral bodies are called intervertebral discs. These discs act as shock absorbers and provide cushioning between each vertebra, helping to prevent bone-on-bone contact. In Mark's case, the presence of a bulging disc suggests that there is an issue with the cartilaginous joint between his vertebral bodies, leading to the compression of a spinal nerve and causing the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop.

Question 3 of 5

Despite having high BP readings in the office, Mr. Kelly tells you that his readings at home are much lower. He checks them twice a day at the same time of day and has kept a log. How do you respond?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Mr. Kelly's scenario is consistent with the phenomenon called "white coat hypertension," where an individual's blood pressure readings are elevated in a medical setting due to anxiety or stress, but are normal when measured at home. This discrepancy between office and home readings is a key indicator of white coat hypertension. Additionally, the fact that Mr. Kelly has been consistently monitoring his blood pressure at home and has kept a log supports the likelihood that his elevated readings in the office are primarily due to the stress of being in that environment. It is important to acknowledge white coat hypertension as a common occurrence and not necessarily a reflection of true high blood pressure that requires immediate medical intervention.

Question 4 of 5

A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about 3 days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, 3 days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over 50 years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative. His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending. What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms and signs is acute diverticulitis. His presentation of abdominal pain, constipation, and low-grade fever, along with tenderness over the left lower quadrant, is consistent with diverticulitis, which is inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can develop in the colon. The history of recent onset of symptoms after consuming popcorn, typically a high-fiber food that can exacerbate diverticulitis, further supports this diagnosis. The negative fecal occult blood test makes more acute intra-abdominal processes like acute appendicitis less likely. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain, and mesenteric ischemia typically presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, as well as signs of abdominal distress.

Question 5 of 5

She is concerned about her risk for developing heart disease. Which of the following factors is used to estimate the 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Ethnicity is one of the factors used to estimate the 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease. Different ethnic groups may have varying risks for heart disease based on genetic predisposition, lifestyle factors, and cultural practices. For example, individuals of South Asian descent have been found to have a higher risk of heart disease compared to other ethnic groups. Therefore, considering ethnicity is essential when assessing the overall risk of developing heart disease in an individual.

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