ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are less likely to cause hypertension compared to combined oral contraceptives and may be preferred in women with cardiovascular risk factors.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oxygen therapy is prioritized to improve oxygenation in clients with pulmonary edema.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in a patient with renal failure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The risks of using hormone replacement therapy for menopausal symptoms include increased chances of stroke, blood clots, and certain types of cancer.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin B. What is the expected length of treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Combined oral contraceptives are associated with a higher risk of blood clots, especially in patients with additional risk factors.
Question 5 of 5
A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in intrinsic factor is the most likely cause of pernicious anemia.
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