Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 30-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. On pelvic ultrasound, a chocolate cyst is visualized within the ovary. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The scenario described in the question is most indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a gynecological condition in which tissue similar to the lining of the uterus grows outside of the uterus. Classic symptoms of endometriosis include cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and infertility. The presence of a "chocolate cyst" (also known as an endometrioma) within the ovary on pelvic ultrasound is a characteristic finding in endometriosis. These cysts are filled with old blood, giving them a dark, chocolate-like appearance on imaging. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) typically presents with irregular periods, signs of hyperandrogenism, and multiple small follicles on ultrasound. Ovarian torsion and ovarian cyst rupture would present with acute-onset symptoms and may not necessarily be associated with cyclic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea as described in the

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for evaluating a woman with suspected cervical dysplasia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Colposcopy with biopsy is the most appropriate diagnostic test for evaluating a woman with suspected cervical dysplasia. Colposcopy is a procedure in which a special magnifying instrument called a colposcope is used to examine the cervix for any abnormal areas. If abnormal tissue is identified during colposcopy, a biopsy will be taken to confirm the presence of cervical dysplasia and determine the severity. This allows for a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Pap smear, although a screening test for cervical dysplasia, may not provide a definitive diagnosis and may require further evaluation with colposcopy and biopsy. Endometrial biopsy and transvaginal ultrasound are not indicated for evaluating cervical dysplasia specifically.

Question 3 of 5

The patient's diagnostic tests revealed he was positive for bacterial pneumonia. The MOST likely causative organism of this type of pneumonia is ______.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common causative organism of bacterial pneumonia in adults. It is responsible for the majority of community-acquired pneumonia cases. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-positive bacteria and is known to cause typical pneumonia characterized by sudden onset of high fever, productive cough with blood-tinged or rust-colored sputum, chest pain, and consolidation on chest imaging. Other organisms like Legionella pneumophila (choice A), Mycoplasma pneumoniae (choice C), and Haemophilus influenzae (choice D) can also cause pneumonia, but Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely culprit based on the patient's test results.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following structures is responsible for propelling food from the oral cavity to the stomach through coordinated muscular contractions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The esophagus is responsible for propelling food from the oral cavity to the stomach through a series of coordinated muscular contractions. These contractions are known as peristalsis. The esophagus is a muscular tube connecting the throat (pharynx) to the stomach and plays a crucial role in moving food bolus from the mouth to the stomach for digestion. The tongue helps in the chewing and swallowing of food, the pharynx is involved in the passage of food and air, and the epiglottis helps prevent food from entering the airways during swallowing. However, it is the esophagus that actively moves the food to the stomach.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva) inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about tiotropium inhaler use?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Tiotropium (Spiriva) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator used for the management of COPD. A common side effect of anticholinergic medications is dry mouth. Rinsing the mouth with water after using the inhaler can help reduce the risk of developing oral thrush or other mouth infections due to dryness. This instruction helps promote good oral hygiene and decreases the potential side effects associated with tiotropium inhaler use. This teaching is important for patients to follow to ensure their overall health and well-being while using the medication.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.

Call to Action Image