ATI RN
Microbiology Basic and Clinical Principles Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 3 month old infant has got a white deposition on the mucous membrane of his mouth, tongue and lips. The doctor suspected candidosis. What nutrient medium should be used for inoculation of the material under examination in order to confirm this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud. Sabouraud agar is specifically designed for the cultivation of fungi and yeasts, making it ideal for identifying Candida species causing candidosis. It contains antibiotics to inhibit bacterial growth, promoting the growth of fungi. Endo, Loewenstein-Jensen, and Roux are not suitable for fungal cultures and are used for different purposes like bacterial isolation or mycobacterial cultures. Sabouraud agar is the best choice for confirming candidosis due to its fungal-selective properties.
Question 2 of 5
For infections caused by coronaviruses is NOT true that;
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer choice D is correct: 1. Coronaviruses can cause reinfections due to potential waning immunity. 2. Studies have shown cases of reinfections with different strains or within a short period. 3. This contradicts the notion that reinfections cannot be observed. Summary: A: Incorrect because some coronaviruses can cause lower respiratory tract infections. B: Incorrect as coronaviruses can exhibit varied symptomatology including asymptomatic cases. C: Incorrect as some coronaviruses like SARS can lead to severe pneumonia and complications.
Question 3 of 5
A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The organism was oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.
Question 4 of 5
Which bacteria are responsible for causing the plague?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pestis is the bacterium responsible for causing the plague, specifically the bubonic plague. It is transmitted through fleas and rodents. Escherichia coli (A) is a common gut bacterium, Clostridium difficile (C) causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is associated with skin infections, but they are not responsible for causing the plague.
Question 5 of 5
According to the location of flagella on their surface, bacteria can be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of these." Monotrichous bacteria have a single flagellum at one end, amphitrichous have flagella at both ends, and peritrichous have flagella distributed all over the surface. The answer D is correct because it includes all these possibilities based on flagella location. Monotrichous is incorrect as it only refers to a single flagellum, amphitrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella at both ends, and peritrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella all over the surface. Therefore, the correct answer encompasses all these options.
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