ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 25-year-old patient reports pain, burning at urination and scarce secretion in the morning. Urine samples are taken and cultivated on blood and MacConkey agar. After 24 hours of incubation, the culture are sterile. Which one of the following bacteria is the most probable cause of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. This is because Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot be cultured on standard agar plates. The symptoms described by the patient, such as pain, burning at urination, and scarce secretion in the morning, are indicative of a possible chlamydial infection. Additionally, the fact that the urine cultures are sterile after 24 hours of incubation suggests that the causative agent is not a typical bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which would normally grow on agar plates. Therefore, Chlamydia trachomatis is the most probable cause of this disease. Summary: A: Escherichia coli - Incorrect, as it is a common cause of urinary tract infections and would typically grow on agar plates. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect, as it is
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following bacteria can produce endotoxins that cause septic shock?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the mentioned bacteria (Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa) are gram-negative bacteria that produce endotoxins in their cell walls. Endotoxins are released when the bacteria are destroyed, leading to the activation of the immune system and potentially causing septic shock. Escherichia coli and Salmonella enterica are common causes of gastrointestinal infections, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for causing infections in immunocompromised individuals. Therefore, all three bacteria can produce endotoxins that contribute to septic shock. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually can produce endotoxins that lead to septic shock.
Question 3 of 5
A 12-year-old boy presents with nausea, frequent repeated vomiting that first occurred after eating canned vegetables. Objectively: the patient has dry mucous membranes, muscular hypotonia, anisocoria, mydriasis, dysphagia and dysarthria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Botulism. The symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting after eating canned vegetables, dry mucous membranes, muscular hypotonia, anisocoria, mydriasis, dysphagia, and dysarthria, are classic signs of botulism poisoning. Botulism is caused by the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria found in improperly canned or preserved food. The neurotoxin affects the nervous system, leading to symptoms like those described. Shigellosis (B), Salmonellosis (C), and Cholera (D) typically present with different symptoms such as diarrhea, fever, and abdominal pain, which are not seen in this patient.
Question 4 of 5
What is the function of bacterial fimbriae?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adhesion to surfaces. Bacterial fimbriae are hair-like appendages that help bacteria attach to surfaces, such as host cells or medical devices. This adhesion is crucial for colonization and infection. DNA replication (B) occurs in the cell's nucleus, not on the surface. Protein synthesis (C) happens inside the cell, not on the fimbriae. Flagella movement (D) is the function of flagella, not fimbriae.
Question 5 of 5
Which type of bacteria are capable of surviving in high salt concentrations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C: Halophiles Rationale: 1. Halophiles are bacteria adapted to high salt environments. 2. They have specific mechanisms to tolerate high salt concentrations. 3. Acidophiles thrive in acidic conditions. 4. Thermophiles prefer high temperature environments. 5. Mesophiles grow best at moderate temperatures.
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