Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate breath sounds. After a near-drowning incident, the main concern is potential respiratory complications such as aspiration pneumonia or pulmonary edema. Auscultating breath sounds will help the nurse assess for any signs of respiratory distress or complications. This assessment is crucial for early detection and intervention. A: Auscultating heart sounds is important but not as crucial as assessing breath sounds in this scenario. B: Palpating peripheral pulses is important for circulation assessment but does not address the immediate concern of respiratory complications. D: Checking pupil reaction to light is more relevant for neurological assessment and not as critical as assessing breathing in this situation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis. The patient's symptoms of general malaise, fatigue, decreased urinary output, along with the presence of coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria in the urinalysis indicate kidney damage. Acute tubular necrosis is a common cause of acute kidney injury characterized by damage to the renal tubules, leading to impaired kidney function. The presence of granular casts and hematuria suggests tubular injury and bleeding within the kidney. Choices A and B are incorrect as they refer to prerenal and postrenal causes of kidney injury, respectively, which do not align with the patient's symptoms and urinalysis findings. Choice D is incorrect as a urinary tract infection would typically present with different symptoms and urinalysis findings.

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: The correct answer is not provided, but based on the events described, the official time of death recorded in the medical record should be 1810 (Choice D). At this time, the cardiac monitor shows flatline, indicating the cessation of cardiac activity, which is the universally accepted point of declaring death. Choice A (1300) is incorrect because that is when diagnostic tests for brain death were completed, but the patient was not officially declared dead at that time. Choice B (1330) is incorrect as this is when the primary care provider reviewed the test results and documented brain death in the progress note, but the patient was not officially declared dead at this time either. Choice C (1400) is incorrect as there is no significant event occurring at this time that signifies the patient's death. Therefore, the most appropriate and official time of death recorded in the medical record would be 1810 when the cardiac monitor shows flatline.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Futility. In this scenario, the primary care provider suggests making the patient a "do not resuscitate" status because further medical treatment is deemed futile. Futility refers to situations where medical interventions are unlikely to achieve the desired outcome. This decision is made when the benefits of continuing treatment do not outweigh the burdens on the patient. Summary: A: Brain death does not apply here as the patient is not brain dead. C: Incompetence refers to the patient's ability to make decisions, not the medical concept being illustrated. D: Life-prolonging procedures are not being discussed; the focus is on the futility of further treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restlessness. When the body experiences hypoxemia (low oxygen levels), the brain is deprived of oxygen, leading to early signs such as restlessness. This is due to the brain's attempt to increase oxygen intake by increasing activity. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of hypoxemia when oxygen levels are critically low. Tachycardia (C) and tachypnea (D) are compensatory mechanisms in response to hypoxemia, but they are not early signs affecting the nervous system directly.