ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 22-year-old patient who experienced a near-drowning accident in a local pool, but now is awake and breathing spontaneously, is admitted for observation. Which assessment will be most important for the nurse to take during the observation period?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate breath sounds. After a near-drowning incident, the main concern is potential respiratory complications such as aspiration pneumonia or pulmonary edema. Auscultating breath sounds will help the nurse assess for any signs of respiratory distress or complications. This assessment is crucial for early detection and intervention. A: Auscultating heart sounds is important but not as crucial as assessing breath sounds in this scenario. B: Palpating peripheral pulses is important for circulation assessment but does not address the immediate concern of respiratory complications. D: Checking pupil reaction to light is more relevant for neurological assessment and not as critical as assessing breathing in this situation.
Question 2 of 5
The patient is admitted with complaints of general malaise and fatigue, along with a decreased urinary output. The patient�s urinalysis shows coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria. The nurse determines that the patient has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis. The patient's symptoms of general malaise, fatigue, decreased urinary output, along with the presence of coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria in the urinalysis indicate kidney damage. Acute tubular necrosis is a common cause of acute kidney injury characterized by damage to the renal tubules, leading to impaired kidney function. The presence of granular casts and hematuria suggests tubular injury and bleeding within the kidney. Choices A and B are incorrect as they refer to prerenal and postrenal causes of kidney injury, respectively, which do not align with the patient's symptoms and urinalysis findings. Choice D is incorrect as a urinary tract infection would typically present with different symptoms and urinalysis findings.
Question 3 of 5
A patient declared brain dead is an organ donor. The following events occur: 1300 Diagnostic tests for brain death are completed. 1330 primary care provider reviews diagnostic test results and writes in the progress note that the patient is brain deaadb.i r1b.4co0m0/ tePsat tient is taken to the operating room for organ retrieval. 1800 All organs have b een retrieved for donation. The ventilator is discontinued. 1810 Cardiac monitor shows fla tline. What is the official time of death recorded in the medical record?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided, but based on the events described, the official time of death recorded in the medical record should be 1810 (Choice D). At this time, the cardiac monitor shows flatline, indicating the cessation of cardiac activity, which is the universally accepted point of declaring death. Choice A (1300) is incorrect because that is when diagnostic tests for brain death were completed, but the patient was not officially declared dead at that time. Choice B (1330) is incorrect as this is when the primary care provider reviewed the test results and documented brain death in the progress note, but the patient was not officially declared dead at this time either. Choice C (1400) is incorrect as there is no significant event occurring at this time that signifies the patient's death. Therefore, the most appropriate and official time of death recorded in the medical record would be 1810 when the cardiac monitor shows flatline.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who is in card iogenic shock and has failed to respond to medical treatment. The primary care provider conducts a conference to explain that they have exhausted treatment options and suggest that the patient be made a �do not resuscitate� status. This scenario illustrates what medical concept?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Futility. In this scenario, the primary care provider suggests making the patient a "do not resuscitate" status because further medical treatment is deemed futile. Futility refers to situations where medical interventions are unlikely to achieve the desired outcome. This decision is made when the benefits of continuing treatment do not outweigh the burdens on the patient. Summary: A: Brain death does not apply here as the patient is not brain dead. C: Incompetence refers to the patient's ability to make decisions, not the medical concept being illustrated. D: Life-prolonging procedures are not being discussed; the focus is on the futility of further treatment.
Question 5 of 5
What is an early signs of the effect of hypoxemia on the nervous system?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restlessness. When the body experiences hypoxemia (low oxygen levels), the brain is deprived of oxygen, leading to early signs such as restlessness. This is due to the brain's attempt to increase oxygen intake by increasing activity. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of hypoxemia when oxygen levels are critically low. Tachycardia (C) and tachypnea (D) are compensatory mechanisms in response to hypoxemia, but they are not early signs affecting the nervous system directly.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access