ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse evaluates a clients arterial blood gas values (ABGs): pH 7.30, PaO2 86 mm Hg, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the airway. The nurse should prioritize airway assessment as the client's ABGs indicate respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2). This suggests potential airway obstruction or inadequate ventilation. Ensuring a patent airway is crucial for adequate oxygenation. Administering bronchodilators (B) or mucolytics (D) may help with airway clearance but should come after ensuring a clear airway. Providing oxygen (C) is important, but addressing the underlying respiratory acidosis by first assessing the airway is the priority in this situation to prevent further deterioration.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has the following arterial blood values: pH 7.12, PaO2 56 mm Hg, PaCO2 65 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which clinical situation should the nurse correlate with these values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetic ketoacidosis in a person with emphysema. The arterial blood values show a low pH (acidosis), high PaCO2 (respiratory acidosis), and normal HCO3 (compensatory metabolic alkalosis). This pattern is consistent with a mixed acid-base disorder seen in diabetic ketoacidosis where metabolic acidosis from ketone production is partially compensated by respiratory acidosis from decreased alveolar ventilation due to emphysema. The other choices do not align with the given blood values. Choice B is incorrect as it would typically show respiratory alkalosis. Choice C would show respiratory alkalosis with low PaCO2. Choice D would result in metabolic acidosis with low HCO3.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has questioned the nurses administration of IV normal saline, asking whether sterile water would be a more appropriate choice than saltwater. Under what circumstances would the nurse administer electrolyte-free water intravenously?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because electrolyte-free water, such as sterile water, can rapidly enter red blood cells due to osmotic differences, causing them to swell and potentially rupture, leading to hemolysis. This can result in severe harm to the patient. Choice B is incorrect because electrolyte-free water is not indicated for severely dehydrated patients with neurologic signs and symptoms. They require electrolytes to correct their imbalances. Choice C is incorrect as administering electrolyte-free water would not address excess calcium and/or magnesium ions in the body. Specific treatments for hypercalcemia or hypermagnesemia are needed. Choice D is incorrect because patients with fluid deficits due to renal failure require electrolyte-balanced solutions to manage their condition effectively. Electrolyte-free water would not address the electrolyte imbalances associated with renal failure.
Question 4 of 5
You are caring for a 65-year-old male patient admitted to your medical unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube placed upon admission has been on low intermittent suction ever since. Upon review of the mornings blood work, you notice that the patients potassium is below reference range. You should recognize that the patient may be at risk for what imbalance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Metabolic alkalosis. Pyloric stenosis can lead to vomiting, causing loss of gastric acid and chloride ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis. Low potassium levels are common in metabolic alkalosis due to potassium shifting into cells to compensate for the alkalosis. Hypercalcemia (choice A) is not associated with pyloric stenosis. Metabolic acidosis (choice B) typically presents with low pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice D) is caused by impaired gas exchange in the lungs, not related to pyloric stenosis.
Question 5 of 5
. A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The man's elevated heart rate, anxiety, and low urine output indicate a sympathetic reaction. This reaction stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased urine output. The sympathetic response triggers the release of renin, which activates angiotensin II and aldosterone, causing vasoconstriction and water reabsorption in the kidneys, ultimately reducing urine output. Choice A is incorrect because low urine output is not solely due to urinating before arrival. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of traumatic brain injury or ADH deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as atrial natriuretic peptide in heart failure typically increases urine output.
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