ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam

Questions 17

ATI RN

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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

In a center for women who have been abused, which intervention would the nurse use for a woman whose husband has been abusing her for several years?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the most appropriate intervention when working with a woman who has been abused by her husband. It acknowledges the woman's pain, expresses empathy, and offers support, creating a safe space for her to open up and seek help. This response shows understanding and compassion, which are crucial when dealing with individuals experiencing abuse.

Question 2 of 5

Before discharge from the chemical dependency unit, clients are introduced to different community resources. Which of the following resources would be best for a teenage client, who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: For a teenage client who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days, the best resource would be a detoxification center. This specialized facility can provide the necessary medical and psychological support to safely manage the withdrawal symptoms associated with substance abuse. It is crucial to ensure a safe and supervised detox process for the client's well-being and successful recovery.

Question 3 of 5

After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale:

Question 4 of 5

During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

Question 5 of 5

Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.

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