Oncology Test Bank

Questions 49

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Oncology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative. Palliative surgery is aimed at relieving symptoms and improving quality of life when a cure is not possible. In this scenario, where the cancer has recurred and metastasized, the goal of surgery would be to alleviate symptoms rather than to cure the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because reconstructive surgery aims to restore function or appearance, salvage surgery aims to remove or salvage tissue to prevent further complications, and prophylactic surgery aims to prevent the development of a condition rather than treat its progression.

Question 2 of 5

An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patient's most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. In multiple myeloma, bone destruction can lead to the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream, causing hypercalcemia. This imbalance is commonly seen in patients with multiple myeloma. Choice B, Hyperproteinemia, is not typically associated with bone destruction in multiple myeloma. Choice C, Elevated serum viscosity, and Choice D, Elevated RBC count, are not directly related to the bone destruction seen in multiple myeloma.

Question 3 of 5

Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

Question 4 of 5

A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.

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