health assessment practice questions nursing

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nothing, this is the appearance of normal tonsils. In a 30-year-old, tonsils commonly appear involuted, granular, and have deep crypts due to natural aging and exposure to infections. This is considered a normal variant and does not typically require further intervention. Referral to a specialist (Option A) is unnecessary as these findings are within the normal range. Continuing the assessment (Option C) may not yield significant abnormal findings related to the tonsils. Throat culture for strep (Option D) is not indicated unless there are specific symptoms or signs of infection.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because tracheal shift due to thyroid enlargement occurs when the thyroid gland enlarges and displaces the trachea to the opposite side. This is a common clinical finding in conditions like a goiter. Other choices are incorrect because: A is incorrect as tracheal shift is not related to systole; B is incorrect as tracheal shift is typically caused by a mass pushing the trachea; C is incorrect as pleural adhesions don't typically cause tracheal shift.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spoon nails. In iron-deficiency anemia, the nails may develop a concave or spoon-like shape (koilonychia). This is due to the decreased oxygen supply to the nail bed. The characteristic spoon nails are indicative of severe iron deficiency. Splinter hemorrhages (choice A) are small areas of bleeding under the nails and are more commonly associated with conditions like endocarditis. Paronychia (choice B) is an infection around the nail, not specific to anemia. Beau's lines (choice D) are horizontal depressions in the nails, typically seen after a period of severe illness or stress, rather than specifically in iron-deficiency anemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: tinea capitis. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp that can cause hair loss, scaling, and breakage of hair. In this case, the patient's symptoms of hair loss, patchy hair breakage, and scaling on the scalp are consistent with tinea capitis. The nurse should suspect tinea capitis based on the presentation of these specific symptoms in the patient. Summary: - B: tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, not the scalp, so it is not the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms. - C: toxic alopecia refers to hair loss due to exposure to toxins, which is unlikely in this case based on the symptoms described. - D: seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that causes redness, scaly patches, and dandruff on the scalp, but it does not typically cause hair loss in the same way as tinea capitis

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: thyroid gland. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. An elevated thyroxine level indicates a potential thyroid gland dysfunction. The nurse would examine the thyroid gland to assess its size, texture, and any signs of abnormalities. Incorrect choices: B: Parotid gland - This gland is responsible for producing saliva, not thyroxine. C: Adrenal gland - Responsible for producing hormones like cortisol and adrenaline, not thyroxine. D: Thyroxine gland - There is no such thing as a "thyroxine gland." Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland.