Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following would the nurse use to document a finding that the patient�s ear is draining?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Otorrhea. Otorrhea refers to the discharge of fluid from the ear, indicating an abnormal finding of ear drainage. This term specifically describes the symptom of ear drainage, making it the most appropriate choice for documenting this finding. Otalgia (choice B) refers to ear pain, ototoxic (choice C) refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, and tinnitus (choice D) refers to ringing in the ears, none of which accurately describe ear drainage. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it specifically addresses the symptom of ear drainage.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Subjective data are information reported by the patient that cannot be observed or measured by others. In this case, choice C is correct because the patient describing excitement about discharge is personal and based on the patient's feelings or perceptions. This is subjective data because it is based on the patient's own experiences and emotions. Choices A and B are incorrect because patient's temperature and wound appearance are objective data that can be measured or observed by the nurse. Choice D is also incorrect as patient pacing the floor is an observable behavior, making it objective data. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it represents subjective data in the context of the assessment.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the ff. descriptions by the nurse would best explain glaucoma to a patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "There is an increase in the intraocular pressure." Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve due to increased pressure within the eye. High intraocular pressure is a key factor in the development of glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect because glaucoma is not associated with an increase in vitreous humor. Choice C is incorrect as glaucoma is not related to a decrease in aqueous humor. Choice D is incorrect because glaucoma is characterized by an increase, not a decrease, in intraocular pressure. Therefore, the most accurate description to explain glaucoma to a patient is the one that mentions the increase in intraocular pressure.

Question 4 of 5

A client is scheduled to receive methotrexate (Folex), 0.625 mg/kg P.O. daily, to treat malignant lymphoma. Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client�s medication history. Which of the following drugs might interact with methotrexate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Probenecid (Benemid). Probenecid can increase methotrexate levels, leading to potential toxicity. Methotrexate is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, and Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion, causing methotrexate levels to rise. Digoxin (A), theophylline (C), and famotidine (D) do not have significant interactions with methotrexate. In summary, Probenecid is the correct answer as it can increase methotrexate levels through renal tubular secretion inhibition, while the other choices do not have a significant interaction with methotrexate.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following questions or statements would be an appropriate termination of the health history interview?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to share any additional information they may have forgotten or overlooked, ensuring a thorough health history interview. Choice A is incorrect as it implies the interviewer is unprepared or disinterested. Choice C is inappropriate as it may make the patient feel guilty or inadequate. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the possibility of gathering more relevant information from the patient.

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