Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teeth. Teeth are responsible for the initial mechanical breakdown of food during mastication. Step 1: Teeth use their hard surfaces to chew and grind food into smaller pieces. Step 2: This process increases the surface area of the food, making it easier for digestive enzymes to break down. Step 3: The tongue aids in moving the food around the mouth but does not break down the food mechanically. Pharynx is responsible for swallowing, not mastication. Salivary glands produce saliva that helps in the lubrication and digestion of food, but they do not directly participate in the mechanical breakdown of food.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpes simplex virus infection. The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash following a linear pattern on the left forearm is characteristic of herpes simplex virus infection, specifically herpes zoster (shingles). The linear pattern is due to the virus following a specific nerve pathway. This is different from the other choices - A: Allergic contact dermatitis typically presents as a diffuse rash at the site of contact with an allergen, not a linear pattern. C: Scabies presents with burrows and papules, not vesicles in a linear pattern. D: Poison ivy dermatitis causes a diffuse rash, not a linear vesicular rash.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: One potential complication of epidural analgesia in labor is maternal hypotension. The epidural analgesic can cause vasodilation, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Maternal hypotension can result in decreased placental perfusion, which may jeopardize fetal well-being. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor the maternal blood pressure closely and intervene promptly if hypotension occurs by providing IV fluids or administering medication to raise blood pressure. Uterine hyperstimulation, fetal tachycardia, and respiratory depression are not typically associated with epidural analgesia as complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.