Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teeth. Teeth are responsible for the initial mechanical breakdown of food during mastication. Step 1: Teeth use their hard surfaces to chew and grind food into smaller pieces. Step 2: This process increases the surface area of the food, making it easier for digestive enzymes to break down. Step 3: The tongue aids in moving the food around the mouth but does not break down the food mechanically. Pharynx is responsible for swallowing, not mastication. Salivary glands produce saliva that helps in the lubrication and digestion of food, but they do not directly participate in the mechanical breakdown of food.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prevents postpartum hemorrhage. Methylergonovine maleate is a uterotonic medication used to prevent and treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing strong uterine contractions, which help to control bleeding after delivery. It is not used to reduce lochia drainage (choice A), decrease uterine contractions (choice C), or maintain normal blood pressure (choice D). By understanding the pharmacological action of methylergonovine maleate in preventing postpartum hemorrhage, we can confidently select choice B as the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened bones, making individuals more susceptible to fractures, especially with minor trauma or falls. In the context of a patient prone to fractures, nurses should be particularly cautious about fall prevention. A: The aging process alone does not necessarily lead to an increased risk of fractures. While aging is a risk factor for osteoporosis, it is not the direct cause of fractures in this case. C: Changes in vision can contribute to an increased risk of falls, but it is not the primary reason for the patient being prone to fractures in this scenario. D: Hematologic conditions may affect bone health, but they are not typically the primary cause of increased fracture risk in patients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because confirming the insertion site and direction using imaging guidance ensures precise placement of the chest tube, minimizing the risk of complications. Imaging guidance allows the nurse to visualize the exact location of the pneumothorax and guide the tube insertion accurately. A: Positioning the patient in a semi-Fowler's position with arms elevated may be beneficial for comfort but does not directly ensure proper chest tube placement. B: Marking the insertion site with a pen may help as a reference point but does not guarantee accurate placement. C: Administering analgesia is important for the patient's comfort but does not impact the placement of the chest tube. In summary, choice D is the most critical step to ensure the chest tube is correctly placed and effectively treats the pneumothorax.