Nursing Process Test Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A semiprivate room with one or two consistent caregivers is the most therapeutic setting for an agitated head-injured patient. Here's the rationale: 1. Consistency: Having one or two consistent caregivers provides the patient with a stable and familiar environment, which can help reduce agitation. 2. Privacy: A semiprivate room offers more privacy compared to a day room or a ward, which can help minimize external stimuli and promote relaxation. 3. Individualized care: In a semiprivate room, caregivers can focus more on the specific needs of the patient, leading to better management of agitation. 4. Reduced distractions: Being in a semiprivate room minimizes distractions and noise, which can be overwhelming for an agitated head-injured patient. Summary: A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not offer the same level of consistency, privacy, individualized care, and reduced distractions as a semiprivate room with one

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: RBC fragments. In idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. The presence of RBC fragments in the blood smear confirms this diagnosis as it indicates mechanical damage to RBCs. Explanation: 1. RBC fragments (schistocytes) are a hallmark of hemolysis, seen in conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 2. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs (Choice B) are typically seen in iron deficiency anemia, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 3. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs (Choice C) are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias like vitamin B12 deficiency, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Hemoglobin molecules (Choice D) are not directly indicative of autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the presence of free hemoglobin in the blood would suggest intrav

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use pressure relieving devices when the client is in bed. This is because pressure ulcers are a common risk for individuals with neuromuscular disorders due to immobility. Pressure relieving devices such as special mattresses or cushions help redistribute pressure and prevent skin breakdown. Incorrect choices: A: Preventing strenuous exercises is not directly related to preventing skin breakdown in this case. C: Placing the client in Fowler's position may be beneficial for respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity. D: Avoiding daily baths with soaps may lead to poor hygiene and does not specifically address the risk of skin breakdown.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing the patient for abnormal bleeding is an appropriate action to monitor for potential complications of warfarin therapy. This aligns with the nursing role in assessing and monitoring patient responses to treatment. B is incorrect as increasing warfarin dose without physician order can lead to adverse effects. C is incorrect as altering the dose without medical advice can be dangerous. D is incorrect as administering Vitamin K would counteract the effects of warfarin, which is used to prevent blood clotting.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Rationale: During a spinal block, the anesthesiologist injects anesthesia into the subarachnoid space, which contains CSF. Proper positioning ensures that the anesthesia stays in place and prevents leakage of CSF, which could lead to complications such as post-dural puncture headache. Incorrect choices: A: To prevent confusion - Irrelevant to the procedure. C: To prevent seizures leakage - Seizures are not a concern with spinal blocks. D: To prevent cardiac arrhythmias - Cardiac arrhythmias are not directly related to spinal blocks.