ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following pairs of ischemic symptoms versus vascular supply is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ischemic symptoms in the upper calf are indicative of peripheral artery disease affecting the tibial or peroneal arteries. These arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the lower leg and foot region, hence causing symptoms such as pain, cramping, or numbness in the upper calf area. Symptoms in the lower calf would typically be associated with more proximal arterial segments like femoral or iliac arteries. So, option D correctly matches the ischemic symptoms with the appropriate vascular supply.
Question 2 of 5
A 72-year-old teacher comes to your clinic for an annual examination. She is concerned about her risk for peripheral vascular disease and states that there is a place in town that does tests to let her know her if she has this or not. Which of the following disease processes is a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coronary artery disease (CAD) is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease (PVD). CAD is a condition where plaque builds up in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle. This process is called atherosclerosis. Similarly, in PVD, atherosclerosis occurs in the peripheral arteries, affecting blood flow to the extremities, most commonly the legs. Individuals with CAD often have systemic atherosclerosis, which puts them at higher risk for developing PVD. Therefore, it is important for the 72-year-old teacher with CAD to be aware of this risk factor for PVD and consider appropriate screening and preventive measures.
Question 3 of 5
A 26-year-old woman comes to your clinic, complaining of leakage of stool despite generally normal, pain-free bowel movements. She denies any blood in her stool or on the toilet paper. She has had no recent episodes of diarrhea. Her past medical history includes a spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 months ago. She had a fourth-degree tear of the perineal area (from the vagina through the rectum) that was surgically repaired after delivery. A few days later the patient developed an abscess in the anal area that had to be incised and drained. She denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. Her mother and father are both in good health. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. She is still breast-feeding without any problems. On examination you visualize a small opening anterior to the anus with some surrounding erythema. There is not a mass or other inflammation on inspection. Digital rectal examination reveals smooth rectal walls with no blood. She has no pain during the rectal examination. Bimanual vaginal examination is also normal. What anal or rectal disorder is the most likely cause of her symptom?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of the woman's symptom of stool leakage despite normal bowel movements is an anorectal fistula. An anorectal fistula is an abnormal, tunnel-like connection between the anal canal or rectum and the skin around the anus. In this case, the small opening anterior to the anus with surrounding erythema on examination suggests the presence of a fistula.
Question 4 of 5
Adam is a very successful 15-year-old student and athlete. His mother brings him in today because he no longer studies, works out, or sees his friends. This has gone on for a month and a half. When you speak with him alone in the room, he states it "would be better if he were not here." What would you do next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is crucial to assess Adam's suicide risk immediately due to the statements he made about it being better if he were not here. This indicates possible suicidal ideation, which requires urgent attention and intervention. Asking directly about suicidal thoughts and intentions can help determine the level of risk and ensure that appropriate support and resources are provided to Adam. It is important to take any mention of suicide seriously and prioritize the safety and well-being of the individual in such situations.
Question 5 of 5
His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His lungs have normal breath sounds and there are no abnormalities with percussion and palpation of the chest. His heart has a normal S and S and no S or S . Further workup is pending. 1 2 3 4 Which disorder of the chest best describes these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario point towards pleural pain. The examination findings of normal breath sounds, no abnormalities with percussion and palpation of the chest, and a normal heart sound (S1 and S2) suggest that the issue is more likely related to the pleura rather than the heart or major blood vessels. Pleural pain is typically sharp and worsens with deep breathing or coughing. This differs from angina pectoris, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscles due to coronary artery disease. Pericarditis involves inflammation of the pericardium, the membrane surrounding the heart, and usually presents with chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward. Dissecting aortic aneurysm is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe, tearing chest pain that can radiate to the back. In this case, the lack of significant abnormalities on cardiac and vascular examination points towards ple
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