Adult Health Nursing Test Banks

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following laboratory findings is characteristic of a patient with a diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is typically confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) during pregnancy. In GDM, the 2-hour plasma glucose level during the OGTT is equal to or greater than 140 mg/dL. This finding is characteristic of GDM and distinguishes it from other types of diabetes. Fasting blood glucose ?126 mg/dL is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus outside of pregnancy, not specifically GDM. Random plasma glucose ?200 mg/dL is indicative of uncontrolled diabetes in general. Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) ?6.5% is used for diagnosing diabetes outside of pregnancy and is not specific to GDM.

Question 2 of 5

What is the appropriate sequence of steps in the assessment of a conscious trauma patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate sequence of steps in the assessment of a conscious trauma patient is the ABCDE approach, which stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which dietary choice indicates understanding of the prescribed diet?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A patient with chronic kidney disease prescribed a low-protein diet should avoid high-protein foods like grilled salmon, lentil soup, and beef stew. Chicken Caesar salad, on the other hand, typically contains a smaller amount of protein compared to the other options. This choice indicates an understanding of the need to limit protein intake while still enjoying a balanced meal. However, it is important to note that the quantity and portion sizes of high-protein ingredients in the salad should also be moderate to comply with a low-protein diet.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increased dyspnea and cough productive of purulent sputum. On auscultation, coarse crackles are heard bilaterally. Which complication of COPD is the patient most likely experiencing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient with a history of COPD presenting with increased dyspnea, cough productive of purulent sputum, and coarse crackles on auscultation is most likely experiencing an acute exacerbation of COPD. Acute exacerbations in COPD are defined as sustained worsening of the patient's respiratory symptoms beyond normal day-to-day variations, leading to a change in medication. Common triggers for exacerbations include respiratory infections, air pollution, and non-compliance with medications.

Question 5 of 5

During surgery, the nurse notices that the patient's temperature is dropping below the normal range. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a patient's temperature is dropping below the normal range during surgery, the nurse should prioritize actively warming the patient to prevent hypothermia. Administering a warming blanket or using a forced-air warming device are effective methods to increase the patient's body temperature and prevent any complications that may arise from hypothermia. Increasing the ambient room temperature can help, but it may not be as direct or effective as applying targeted heat sources to the patient. Documenting the temperature trend in the patient's chart is important for record-keeping purposes, but immediate action to address the dropping temperature is necessary. Continuously monitoring the patient's temperature closely is important, but action should be taken promptly to prevent further decline.

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