ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

Questions 84

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2 Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is NOT a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Choices A, B, and D are all relevant terminal learning objectives for Phase I, focusing on understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, nutrition, performing pharmacological calculations, and identifying basic principles of field nursing, respectively.

Question 2 of 5

Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

Question 3 of 5

A client is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Dizziness' and 'Headache'. ACE inhibitors like lisinopril are known to cause these common side effects due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Choice A, 'Constipation', is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While constipation can be a side effect of some medications, it is not typically seen with ACE inhibitors. Therefore, options A and B are incorrect choices.

Question 4 of 5

A client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider ordering?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. A chest tube may be needed if a pancreatic pseudocyst ruptures into the pleural space, causing a pleural effusion. Paracentesis (choice A) involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not typically indicated for a pancreatic pseudocyst. Lumbar puncture (choice C) is a procedure to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant to a pancreatic pseudocyst. Biopsy of the pancreas (choice D) is a diagnostic procedure to obtain tissue samples for examination and is not typically done in the context of a ruptured pseudocyst.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse administers 2 units of salt-poor albumin to a client with portal hypertension and ascites. The nurse explains to the client that this is administered to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevate the circulating blood volume. Salt-poor albumin is given to increase the circulating blood volume, which helps reduce ascites by improving fluid distribution within the body. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because salt-poor albumin is not administered to provide nutrients, increase protein stores, or divert blood flow away from the liver.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI -RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI -RN exam.

Call to Action Image