Midwifery Exam Practice Questions

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is NOT a source of pain in labour?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Uterine contractions are a physiological process in labor causing pain due to muscle contractions. Step 2: Cervical dilatation involves the opening of the cervix, which can cause pain and discomfort. Step 3: Pelvic floor stretching occurs as the baby moves through the birth canal, leading to pain. Step 4: Socio-cultural norms do not directly cause physical pain in labor, making choice B the correct answer. Other choices directly relate to physical processes causing pain.

Question 2 of 5

Deep transverse arrest is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest refers to a situation where the fetal head fails to rotate and descend in the pelvis due to the occiput and sinciput being at the same level. This leads to a prolonged labor. Choice A is incorrect because flexion can be inadequate in deep transverse arrest. Choice B is incorrect because it is not solely caused by uterine contractions but rather fetal malposition. Choice C is incorrect because a well-curved sacrum is not a defining factor in deep transverse arrest.

Question 3 of 5

What is the significance of skin-to-skin contact after birth?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because skin-to-skin contact after birth offers multiple benefits. Firstly, it helps stabilize the baby's temperature by utilizing the parent's body heat. Secondly, it promotes bonding between the parent and baby through physical closeness and touch. Finally, it can regulate the baby's heartbeat by providing a calming and reassuring environment. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in highlighting the significance of skin-to-skin contact after birth.

Question 4 of 5

The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for patients with traumatic brain injury and a GCS of 3 to 8, regardless of the head CT findings. Intracranial pressure monitoring helps in the management of elevated intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Abnormal head CT findings may indicate the need for immediate intervention, but intracranial pressure monitoring is still recommended for all patients in this GCS range to guide treatment decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, age > 40 years old, and bradycardia are not factors that would exclude a patient from needing intracranial pressure monitoring in the presence of a GCS of 3 to 8.

Question 5 of 5

Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions highly associated with:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rhesus D incompatibility. Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by Rhesus D incompatibility between the mother and fetus. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, leading to the production of antibodies by the mother that attack the baby's red blood cells. This can result in severe jaundice (icterus gravis) and excessive fluid accumulation in the fetus (hydrops fetalis). Summary: - Choice B (ABO incompatibility) is incorrect because it typically causes less severe jaundice and anemia compared to Rhesus D incompatibility. - Choice C (Physiological jaundice) is incorrect as it is a common benign condition in newborns due to immature liver function. - Choice D (Instant perinatal death) is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the conditions mentioned.

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